An Act to combat money laundering and the financing of
terrorism, and for other purposes
Part 1—Introduction
1
Short title [see
Note 1]
This Act may be cited as the Anti‑Money
Laundering and Counter‑Terrorism Financing Act 2006.
2
Commencement
(1) Each provision of this Act specified in
column 1 of the table commences, or is taken to have commenced, in accordance
with column 2 of the table. Any other statement in column 2 has effect
according to its terms.
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Commencement
information
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Column 1
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Column 2
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Column 3
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Provision(s)
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Commencement
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Date/Details
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1. Sections 1 and 2 and anything in this Act not
elsewhere covered by this table
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The day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2006
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2. Sections 3 to 26
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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3. Part 2, Divisions 1 to 5
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The first day after the end of the period of 12 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2007
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4. Part 2, Division 6
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The first day after the end of the period of 24 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2008
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5. Part 2, Division 7
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The first day after the end of the period of 12 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2007
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6. Part 3,
Divisions 1 to 4
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The first day after the end of the period of 24 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2008
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7. Part 3, Division 5
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The first day after the end of the period of 6 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 June 2007
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8. Part 3, Division 6
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The first day after the end of the period of 24 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2008
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9. Parts 4, 5 and 6
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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10. Part 7
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The first day after the end of the period of 12 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2007
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11. Part 8
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The first day after the end of the period of 6 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 June 2007
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12. Part 9
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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13. Part 10, Divisions 1 and 2
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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14. Part 10, Division 3
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The first day after the end of the period of 12 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2007
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15. Part 10, Division 4
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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16. Part 10, Division 5
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The first day after the end of the period of 12 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 December 2007
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17. Part 10, Division 6
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The first day after the end of the period of 6 months
beginning on the day on which this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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12 June 2007
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18. Part 10, Division 7
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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19. Parts 11 to 18
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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20. Schedule 1
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The day after this Act receives the Royal Assent.
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13 December 2006
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Note: This table
relates only to the provisions of this Act as originally passed by both Houses
of the Parliament and assented to. It will not be expanded to deal with
provisions inserted in this Act after assent.
(2) Column 3 of the table contains additional
information that is not part of this Act. Information in this column may be
added to or edited in any published version of this Act.
3
Objects
(1) The objects of this Act include:
(a) to fulfil Australia’s international obligations, including:
(i) Australia’s international obligations to combat money laundering; and
(ii) Australia’s international obligations to combat financing of terrorism; and
(b) to address matters of
international concern, including:
(i) the need to combat
money laundering; and
(ii) the need to combat
financing of terrorism; and
(c) by addressing those matters of
international concern, to affect beneficially Australia’s relations with:
(i) foreign countries; and
(ii) international
organisations.
Note 1: The objects of this Act are achieved by (among
other things) requiring information to be given to the AUSTRAC CEO and by
allowing certain other agencies to access information collected by the AUSTRAC
CEO.
Note 2: The objects mentioned in
paragraphs (1)(a),(b) and (c) relate to the external affairs power. Schedule 1
(alternative constitutional basis) contains provisions designed to attract
other legislative powers (including the taxation power).
(2) Relevant international obligations
include obligations under the following:
(a) the United Nations Convention Against
Corruption, done at New York on 31 October 2003 [2006] ATS 2;
(b) the United Nations Convention
Against Transnational Organized Crime, done at New York on 15 November 2000 [2004] ATS 12;
(c) the Convention on Laundering,
Search, Seizure and Confiscation of the Proceeds of Crime, done at Strasbourg on 8 November 1990 [1997] ATS 21;
(d) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1267 S/RES/1267 (1999);
(e) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1373 S/RES/1373 (2001);
(f) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1617 S/RES/1617 (2005).
(3) The following reflect international
concern:
(a) the FATF Recommendations;
(b) the United Nations Convention
Against Corruption, done at New York on 31 October 2003 [2006] ATS 2;
(c) the United Nations Convention
Against Transnational Organized Crime, done at New York on 15 November 2000 [2004] ATS 12;
(d) the Convention on Laundering,
Search, Seizure and Confiscation of the Proceeds of Crime, done at Strasbourg on 8 November 1990 [1997] ATS 21;
(e) the International Convention for
the Suppression of the Financing of Terrorism, done at New York on 9 December 1999 [2002] ATS 23;
(f) United Nations General Assembly
Resolution 51/210 A/RES/51/210 (1996);
(g) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1267 S/RES/1267 (1999);
(h) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1269 S/RES/1269 (1999);
(i) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1373 S/RES/1373 (2001);
(j) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1456 S/RES/1456 (2003);
(k) United Nations Security Council
Resolution 1617 S/RES/1617 (2005).
Note 1: FATF Recommendations is defined
in section 5.
Note 2: In 2006, the text of international agreements
in the Australian Treaty Series was accessible through the Australian Treaties
Library on the AustLII website (www.austlii.edu.au).
Note 3: In 2006, the text of United Nations Security
Council resolutions and United Nations General Assembly resolutions was
accessible through the United Nations website (www.un.org).
4
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Act:
• A reporting entity is a
financial institution, or other person, who provides designated services.
(Designated services are listed in section 6.)
• A reporting entity must
carry out a procedure to verify a customer’s identity before providing a
designated service to the customer. However, in special cases, the procedure
may be carried out after the provision of the designated service.
• Certain pre‑commencement
customers are subject to modified identification procedures.
• Certain low‑risk services
are subject to modified identification procedures.
• Reporting entities must
report the following to the Chief Executive Officer of AUSTRAC (the Australian
Transaction Reports and Analysis Centre):
(a) suspicious
matters;
(b) certain
transactions above a threshold.
• Certain international funds
transfer instructions must be reported to the AUSTRAC CEO.
• Cross‑border movements of
physical currency must be reported to the AUSTRAC CEO, a customs officer or a
police officer if the total amount moved is above a threshold.
• Cross‑border
movements of bearer negotiable instruments must be reported to the AUSTRAC CEO,
a customs officer or a police officer if a customs officer or a police officer
requires a person to make such a report.
• Electronic funds transfer
instructions must include certain information about the origin of the
transferred money.
• Providers of designated
remittance services must be registered with the AUSTRAC CEO.
• Reporting entities must
have and comply with anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
programs.
• Financial institutions are
subject to restrictions in connection with entering into correspondent banking
relationships.
5
Definitions
In this Act:
account includes:
(a) a credit card account; and
(b) a loan account (other than a
credit card account); and
(c) an account of money held in the
form of units in:
(i) a cash management
trust; or
(ii) a trust of a kind
prescribed by the AML/CTF Rules.
To avoid doubt, it is immaterial whether:
(d) an account has a nil balance; or
(e) any transactions have been allowed
in relation to an account.
account provider: if an account is with a
person, the person is the account provider for the account.
acquiring: in determining whether something is
a designated service, acquiring includes anything that, under the
regulations, is taken to be acquiring for the purposes of this definition.
ADI (short for
authorised deposit‑taking institution) means:
(a) a body corporate that is an ADI
for the purposes of the Banking Act 1959; or
(b) the Reserve Bank of Australia; or
(c) a person who carries on State
banking within the meaning of paragraph 51(xiii) of the Constitution.
AFP member (short for Australian Federal
Police member) means a member or special member of the Australian Federal
Police.
agency:
(a) a
Department of the Commonwealth is taken to be an agency of the Commonwealth for
the purposes of this Act;
(b) a Department of a State is taken
to be an agency of the State for the purposes of this Act;
(c) a Department of a Territory is
taken to be an agency of the Territory for the purposes of this Act.
allowing a transaction: in determining
whether a person has allowed a transaction, it is immaterial whether the person
was obliged to allow the transaction.
AML/CTF Rules (short for Anti‑Money
Laundering/Counter‑Terrorism Financing Rules) means the rules made under
section 229.
anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program has the meaning given by section 83.
applicable customer identification procedure:
for the purposes of the application of this Act to customers of a reporting
entity, applicable customer identification procedure has the
meaning ascertained in accordance with:
(a) if all of the designated services
provided by the reporting entity are covered by item 54 of table 1 in
section 6, and there is no joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program that applies to, and has been adopted by, the reporting
entity:
(i) a special anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program that applies to, and has
been adopted by, the reporting entity; or
(ii) if the program has
been varied on one or more occasions—the program as varied; or
(b) in
any other case:
(i) Part B of an anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program that applies to, and has
been adopted by, the reporting entity; or
(ii) if the program has
been varied on one or more occasions—Part B of the program as varied.
Note: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
approved means approved by the AUSTRAC CEO,
in writing, for the purposes of the provision in which the term occurs.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
approved deposit fund has the same meaning as
in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993.
approved third‑party bill payment system
means a bill payment system prescribed by the AML/CTF Rules.
arrangement includes:
(a) any agreement, arrangement,
understanding, promise or undertaking, whether express or implied, and whether
or not enforceable, or intended to be enforceable, by legal proceedings; and
(b) any scheme, plan, proposal,
action, course of action or course of conduct, whether unilateral or otherwise.
ASIO means the Australian Security
Intelligence Organisation.
ASIO Minister means the Minister responsible
for administering the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979.
ASIO official means:
(a) the Director‑General of Security;
or
(b) a person employed under paragraph
84(1)(a) or (b) of the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act
1979.
ASIS means the Australian Secret
Intelligence Service.
ASIS Minister means the Minister responsible
for administering so much of the Intelligence Services Act 2001 as
relates to ASIS.
ASIS official means:
(a) the Director‑General of ASIS; or
(b) a person employed under subsection
33(1) of the Intelligence Services Act 2001; or
(c) a person engaged under subsection
34(1) of the Intelligence Services Act 2001.
For the purposes of this Act, a person covered by
paragraph (c) is taken to be an employee of ASIS.
assessment, in relation to an
individual, means an assessment prepared or provided by a credit reporting
agency under paragraph 35B(1)(a) in relation to the individual.
AUSTRAC means the Australian Transaction
Reports and Analysis Centre continued in existence by section 209.
AUSTRAC CEO means the Chief Executive Officer
of AUSTRAC.
AUSTRAC information means:
(a) eligible collected information; or
(b) a compilation by the AUSTRAC CEO
of eligible collected information; or
(c) an analysis by the AUSTRAC CEO of
eligible collected information.
Australia, when used in a geographical sense,
includes the external Territories.
Australian account means an account held in Australia.
Australian Commission for Law Enforcement Integrity
officer means a staff member (as defined by section 11 of the Law
Enforcement Integrity Commissioner Act 2006) of the Australian Commission
for Law Enforcement Integrity.
Australian financial services licence has the
same meaning as in Chapter 7 of the Corporations Act 2001.
Australian government body means:
(a) the Commonwealth, a State or a
Territory; or
(b) an agency or authority of:
(i) the Commonwealth; or
(ii) a State; or
(iii) a Territory.
authorised officer
means:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(b) a person for whom an appointment
as an authorised officer is in force under section 145.
batched electronic funds
transfer instruction means an electronic funds transfer instruction
accepted by an ADI or a bank from a particular payer, where:
(a) the
transfer instruction is one of a particular batch of electronic funds transfer
instructions accepted by the ADI or bank from the payer; and
(b) the batch is, or is to be, passed
on or dispatched in a single file that includes the complete payer information
in respect of each of the electronic funds transfer instructions in the batch.
bearer negotiable instrument has the meaning
given by section 17.
beneficiary institution, in relation to an
electronic funds transfer instruction:
(a) in the case of a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(1); or
(b) in the case of a same‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(2); or
(c) in the case of a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(1); or
(d) in the case of a same‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(2).
bet
includes wager.
bill of exchange has the same meaning as in
paragraph 51(xvi) of the Constitution, but does not include a cheque unless the
cheque is a cheque that an ADI, bank or other institution draws on itself.
borrow has a meaning corresponding to loan.
building society includes a society
registered or incorporated as a co‑operative housing society or similar society
under:
(a) a law of a State or Territory; or
(b) a law of a foreign country or a
part of a foreign country.
bullion includes anything that, under the
regulations, is taken to be bullion for the purposes of this Act.
business includes a venture or concern in
trade or commerce, whether or not conducted on a regular, repetitive or
continuous basis.
business day means a day other than a
Saturday, a Sunday or a public or bank holiday in the place concerned.
civil penalty order means an order under
section 175.
civil penalty provision means a provision
declared by this Act to be a civil penalty provision.
commence to provide a designated service
means:
(a) if the designated service is
provided at an instant of time—provide the service; or
(b) if the designated service is
provided over a period of time—begin to provide the service.
commercial goods carrier means a person who,
in the normal course of a business, carries goods or mail for reward.
commercial passenger carrier means a person who,
in the normal course of a business, carries passengers for reward.
Commonwealth place means:
(a) a Commonwealth place within the
meaning of the Commonwealth Places (Application of Laws) Act 1970; or
(b) a place in a Territory, where the
place is owned by the Commonwealth.
Commonwealth Royal Commission means a Royal
Commission within the meaning of the Royal Commissions Act 1902.
company has the same meaning as in the Income
Tax Assessment Act 1997.
Note: Under the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997,
company includes an unincorporated association or body of
persons.
complete payer information has the meaning
given by section 71.
compliance record of a reporting entity
means:
(a) a record that relates to the
obligations under this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules of the
reporting entity; or
(b) a record, copy or extract retained
under Part 10 by the reporting entity.
constitutional corporation means a
corporation to which paragraph 51(xx) of the Constitution applies.
contribution:
(a) in relation to an FHSA—has the
same meaning as in the First Home Saver Accounts Act 2008; or
(b) in relation to an RSA—has the same
meaning as in the Retirement Savings Accounts Act 1997.
controller of an eligible gaming machine
venue has the meaning given by section 13.
control test: passing the control test has
the meaning given by section 11.
correspondent banking relationship means a
relationship that involves the provision by a financial institution (the first
financial institution) of banking services to another financial
institution, where:
(a) the first financial institution
carries on an activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of
the financial institution in a particular country; and
(b) the other financial institution
carries on an activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of
the other financial institution in another country; and
(c) the correspondent banking
relationship relates, in whole or in part, to those permanent establishments;
and
(d) the relationship is not of a kind
specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(e) the banking services are not of a
kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
For this purpose, banking service includes
anything that, under the AML/CTF Rules, is taken to be a banking service for
the purposes of this definition.
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
country means Australia or a foreign country.
credit card has the same meaning as in Schedule 2
to the Competition and Consumer Act 2010.
credit information file has the same meaning
as in the Privacy Act 1988.
credit reporting agency has the same meaning
as in the Privacy Act 1988.
custodial or depository service: see the
definition of providing a custodial or depository service.
customer has the meaning given by
section 6, and includes a prospective customer.
customs officer means:
(a) the Chief Executive Officer of
Customs; or
(b) an officer of customs within the
meaning of the Customs Act 1901.
damage, in relation to data, includes damage
by erasure of data or addition of other data.
data includes:
(a) information in any form; or
(b) any program (or part of a
program).
data storage device means a thing containing,
or designed to contain, data for use by a computer.
debit card has the same meaning as in Schedule 2
to the Competition and Consumer Act 2010.
debit card account: if a debit card enables
the holder of an account to debit the account, the account is a debit
card account.
Defence Department means the Department
administered by the Defence Minister.
defence intelligence agency means DIGO, DIO
or DSD.
Defence Minister means the Minister
responsible for administering the Defence Act 1903.
Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade
means the Department administered by the Foreign Affairs Minister.
derivative has the same meaning as in Chapter 7
of the Corporations Act 2001.
designated agency means:
(a) the Australian Crime Commission;
or
(b) ASIO; or
(c) the Australian Commission for Law
Enforcement Integrity; or
(d) the Australian Competition and
Consumer Commission; or
(e) Customs; or
(f) the Australian Federal Police; or
(g) the Australian Prudential
Regulation Authority; or
(ga) ASIS; or
(gb) DIGO; or
(gc) DIO; or
(gd) DSD; or
(ge) ONA; or
(h) the Australian Securities and
Investments Commission; or
(i) the Human Services Department; or
(k) a Commonwealth Royal Commission
whose terms of reference include inquiry into whether unlawful conduct (however
described) has, or might have, occurred; or
(ka) the Department of Foreign Affairs
and Trade; or
(l) the Immigration Department; or
(m) IGIS; or
(n) the Treasury Department; or
(o) an authority or agency of the
Commonwealth, where the authority or agency is specified in the regulations; or
(p) the police force or police service
of a State or the Northern Territory; or
(q) the New South Wales Crime
Commission; or
(r) the Independent Commission
Against Corruption of New South Wales; or
(s) the Police Integrity Commission
of New South Wales; or
(t) the Crime and Misconduct
Commission of Queensland; or
(u) the Corruption and Crime
Commission of Western Australia; or
(v) an authority or agency of a State
or Territory, where the authority or agency has the responsibility of
collecting or receiving taxation revenue of the State or Territory; or
(w) a State/Territory Royal Commission:
(i) whose terms of
reference include inquiry into whether unlawful conduct (however described)
has, or might have, occurred; and
(ii) that is specified in
the regulations; or
(x) an authority or agency of a State
or Territory, where the authority or agency is specified in the regulations.
designated business group means a group of 2
or more persons, where:
(a) each member of the group has
elected, in writing, to be a member of the group, and the election is in force;
and
(b) each election was made in
accordance with the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) no member of the group is a member
of another designated business group; and
(d) each member of the group satisfies
such conditions (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(e) the group is not of a kind that,
under the AML/CTF Rules, is ineligible to be a designated business group.
designated remittance arrangement has the
meaning given by section 10.
designated service has the meaning given by
section 6.
DIGO means that part of the Department of
Defence known as the Defence Imagery and Geospatial Organisation, and includes
any part of the Defence Force that performs functions on behalf of that part of
the Department.
DIO means that part of the Department of
Defence known as the Defence Intelligence Organisation, and includes any part
of the Defence Force that performs functions on behalf of that part of the
Department.
director of a company includes a member of a
body corporate incorporated for a public purpose by a law of the Commonwealth,
a State or a Territory.
Director‑General of Security means the
Director‑General of Security holding office under the Australian Security
Intelligence Organisation Act 1979.
disclose means divulge or communicate.
disposing of: in determining whether something
is a designated service, disposing of includes anything that,
under the regulations, is taken to be disposing of for the purposes of this
definition.
DSD means that part of the Department of
Defence known as the Defence Signals Directorate, and includes any part of the
Defence Force that performs functions on behalf of that part of the Department.
e‑currency means an internet‑based,
electronic means of exchange that is:
(a) known as any of the following:
(i) e‑currency;
(ii) e‑money;
(iii) digital currency;
(iv) a name specified in the
AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) backed either directly or
indirectly by:
(i) precious metal; or
(ii) bullion; or
(iii) a thing of a kind prescribed
by the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) not issued by or under the
authority of a government body;
and includes anything that, under the regulations, is
taken to be e‑currency for the purposes of this Act.
electronic communication has the same meaning
as in the Criminal Code.
electronic funds
transfer instruction means:
(a) a
multiple‑institution person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(b) a same‑institution person‑to‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(c) a multiple‑institution same‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(d) a same‑institution same‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction.
eligible collected information means:
(a) information obtained by the
AUSTRAC CEO under:
(i) this Act; or
(ii) any other law of the
Commonwealth; or
(iii) a law of a State or
Territory; or
(b) information obtained by the
AUSTRAC CEO from a government body; or
(c) information obtained by an
authorised officer under Part 13, 14 or 15;
and includes FTR information (within the meaning of the Financial
Transaction Reports Act 1988).
eligible gaming machine venue has the meaning
given by section 13.
eligible place means:
(a) a place for the examination of
goods on landing, where the place is appointed under section 17 of the Customs
Act 1901; or
(b) a warehouse in respect of which a
warehouse licence (within the meaning of Part V of the Customs Act 1901)
is in force; or
(c) a port, airport, wharf or boarding
station appointed under section 15 of the Customs Act 1901.
embarkation area means a section 234AA
place within the meaning of the Customs Act 1901.
engage in conduct means:
(a) do an act; or
(b) omit to perform an act.
evidential burden, in relation to a matter,
means the burden of adducing or pointing to evidence that suggests a reasonable
possibility that the matter exists or does not exist.
examiner of the Australian Crime Commission means
an examiner within the meaning of the Australian Crime Commission Act 2002.
exempt financial market operator issue
of a security or derivative means the making available of the security or
derivative, by the operator of a financial market (within the meaning of
Chapter 7 of the Corporations Act 2001), in the course of operating
the financial market.
exempt legal practitioner service means a
service that, under the AML/CTF Rules, is taken to be an exempt legal
practitioner service for the purposes of this Act.
external auditor means a person authorised
under section 164 to be an external auditor for the purposes of this Act.
factoring includes anything that, under the
regulations, is taken to be factoring for the purposes of this Act.
false customer name means a name other than a
name by which the customer is commonly known.
FATF Recommendations (short for Financial
Action Task Force Recommendations) means:
(a) all of the following
Recommendations:
(i) the Forty
Recommendations adopted by the Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering
(FATF) at its plenary meeting on 20 June 2003;
(ii) the Special
Recommendations on Terrorist Financing adopted by the Financial Action Task
Force on Money Laundering (FATF) at its special plenary meeting on 31 October 2001;
(iii) Special Recommendation
IX on Terrorist Financing adopted by the Financial Action Task Force on Money
Laundering (FATF) at its plenary meeting on 20‑22 October 2004; or
(b) if any or all of those Recommendations
are amended—the Recommendations as so amended.
Note: In 2006, the text of the FATF Recommendations
was available on the FATF website (www.fatf‑gafi.org).
Federal Court means the Federal Court of
Australia.
FHSA (short for first home saver account) has
the same meaning as in the First Home Saver Accounts Act 2008.
FHSA provider (short for first home saver
account provider) has the same meaning as in the First Home Saver Accounts
Act 2008.
financial institution means:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
financing of terrorism means conduct that
amounts to:
(a) an offence against
section 102.6 or Division 103 of the Criminal Code; or
(b) an offence against section 20
or 21 of the Charter of the United Nations Act 1945; or
(c) an offence against a law of a
State or Territory that corresponds to an offence referred to in
paragraph (a) or (b); or
(d) an offence against a law of a
foreign country or a part of a foreign country that corresponds to an offence
referred to in paragraph (a) or (b).
Foreign Affairs Minister means the Minister
responsible for administering the Diplomatic Privileges and Immunities Act
1967.
foreign country includes a region where:
(a) the region is a colony, territory
or protectorate of a foreign country; or
(b) the region is part of a foreign
country; or
(c) the region is under the protection
of a foreign country; or
(d) a foreign country exercises
jurisdiction or control over the region; or
(e) a foreign country is responsible
for the region’s international relations.
foreign exchange contract means a contract:
(a) to buy or sell currency (whether
Australian or not); or
(b) to exchange one currency (whether
Australian or not) for another (whether Australian or not).
foreign intelligence
agency means a government body that has responsibility for:
(a) intelligence
gathering for a foreign country; or
(b) the
security of a foreign country.
foreign law enforcement agency means a
government body that has responsibility for law enforcement in a foreign
country or a part of a foreign country.
funds transfer chain has the meaning given by
subsection 64(2).
game includes an electronic game, but does
not include a lottery.
gaming chip or token means a chip or token
for playing a game, where:
(a) the game is played for money or
anything else of value; and
(b) the game is a game of chance or of
mixed chance and skill.
gaming machine means a machine for playing a
game, where:
(a) the game is played for money or
anything else of value; and
(b) the game is a game of chance or of
mixed chance and skill.
government body means:
(a) the government of a country; or
(b) an agency or authority of the
government of a country; or
(c) the government of part of a
country; or
(d) an agency or authority of the
government of part of a country.
guarantee includes anything that, under the
regulations, is taken to be a guarantee for the purposes of this Act.
Human Services Department means the Department
administered by the Human Services Minister.
Human Services Minister means the Minister
administering the Human Services (Centrelink) Act 1997.
IGIS (short for Inspector‑General of
Intelligence and Security) means the agency consisting of:
(a) the Inspector‑General of
Intelligence and Security; and
(b) the APS employees assisting the
Inspector‑General of Intelligence and Security.
IGIS official
(short for Inspector‑General of Intelligence and Security official) means:
(a) the Inspector‑General of Intelligence
and Security; or
(b) an APS employee assisting the
Inspector‑General of Intelligence and Security.
Immigration Department means the Department
responsible for the administration of the Migration Act 1958.
incorporated includes formed. This definition
does not apply to the expression unincorporated.
information obtained includes information
obtained as a result of the production of a document.
infringement notice means an infringement
notice under section 184.
Inter‑Governmental Committee means the Inter‑Governmental
Committee mentioned in section 8 of the Australian Crime Commission Act
2002.
international funds transfer instruction has
the meaning given by section 46.
investigating officer means:
(a) a taxation officer; or
(b) an AFP member; or
(c) a customs officer (other than the
Chief Executive Officer of Customs); or
(d) an examiner of the Australian
Crime Commission; or
(e) a member of the staff of the
Australian Crime Commission.
involves includes relates to.
issue, when used in relation to a security or
derivative, includes grant or otherwise make available. The time when a
derivative is issued is to be worked out under subsection 761E(3) of the Corporations
Act 2001.
joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program has the meaning given by subsection 85(1).
lease, when used in relation to goods,
includes hire.
life policy means a life policy (within the
meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995), but does not include:
(a) a policy for which there is no
prescribed minimum surrender value (other than that which may be provided for
in the policy documentation and promotional material); or
(b) a regular premium policy to which
paragraph (a) does not apply, where the amount, or the total of the
amounts, payable by way of premium each year is not more than:
(i) $1,500; or
(ii) if a greater amount is
specified in the AML/CTF Rules—that greater amount; or
(c) a single premium policy to which
paragraph (a) does not apply, where the amount of the single premium is
not more than:
(i) $3,000; or
(ii) if a greater amount is
specified in the AML/CTF Rules—that greater amount; or
(d) a contract of consumer credit
insurance (within the meaning of the Insurance Contracts Act 1984).
For the purposes of this definition, the question of
whether a policy has a prescribed minimum surrender value is to be determined
in accordance with prudential standards made under section 230A of the Life
Insurance Act 1995 as in force from time to time.
loan includes:
(a) an advance of money; and
(b) the provision of credit or any
other form of financial accommodation; and
(c) the payment of an amount for, on
account of, on behalf of or at the request of a person where there is an
obligation (whether expressed or implied) to repay the amount; and
(d) a transaction (whatever its terms
or form) which in substance effects a loan of money;
but does not include:
(e) if goods (within the meaning of
the Competition and Consumer Act 2010) are sold on credit—the provision
by the seller of that credit; or
(f) if services (within the meaning
of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010) are provided on credit—the
provision by the provider of the service of that credit; or
(g) anything that, under the AML/CTF
Rules, is taken not to be a loan for the purposes of this Act.
make available, when used in relation to
money, includes reducing the balance of a loan account.
member of the staff of the Australian Crime
Commission has the same meaning as in the Australian Crime
Commission Act 2002.
modifications includes additions, omissions
and substitutions.
money includes:
(a) physical currency; and
(b) money held in an account, whether
denominated in Australian currency or any other currency; and
(c) money held on deposit, whether
denominated in Australian currency or any other currency; and
(d) e‑currency, however amounts of the
e‑currency are expressed.
money laundering means conduct that amounts
to:
(a) an offence against
Division 400 of the Criminal Code; or
(b) an offence against a law of a
State or Territory that corresponds to an offence referred to in
paragraph (a); or
(c) an offence against a law of a
foreign country or of a part of a foreign country that corresponds to an
offence referred to in paragraph (a).
money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessment
has the meaning given by subsection 165(6).
monitoring powers has the meaning given by
section 148.
monitoring warrant means a warrant issued
under section 159.
move physical currency into Australia has the meaning given by section 58.
move physical currency out of Australia has the meaning given by section 57.
multiple‑institution person‑to‑person electronic
funds transfer instruction has the meaning given by subsection 8(1).
multiple‑institution same‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction has the meaning given by subsection 9(1).
non‑designated Commonwealth agency means an
authority or agency of the Commonwealth that is not a designated agency.
non‑financier means a person who is not:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
non‑reportable cross‑border movement of physical
currency means:
(a) a movement of physical currency
out of Australia; or
(b) a movement of physical currency
into Australia;
for which a report under section 53 is not required.
non‑reportable transaction: if:
(a) a reporting entity commences to
provide, or provides, a designated service to a customer; and
(b) the provision of the service
involves a transaction; and
(c) the transaction is not a threshold
transaction;
the transaction is a non‑reportable transaction.
offence:
(a) a reference in this Act to an
offence against a law of the Commonwealth (including this Act) includes a
reference to an offence against section 6 of the Crimes Act 1914
that relates to such an offence; and
(b) a reference in this Act to a
particular offence includes a reference to an offence against section 6 of
the Crimes Act 1914 that relates to that particular offence.
Note: For other ancillary offences, see section 11.6
of the Criminal Code.
officer:
(a) a director or secretary of a
company is taken to be an officer of the company for the purposes of this Act;
(b) a partner of a partnership is
taken to be an officer of the partnership for the purposes of this Act;
(c) a trustee or manager of a trust is
taken to be an officer of the trust for the purposes of this Act.
official of a designated agency or a non‑designated
Commonwealth agency has the meaning given by section 22.
ONA means the Office of National Assessments
established by the Office of National Assessments Act 1977.
opening, in
relation to an account, means creating the account. To avoid doubt, it is
immaterial whether:
(a) the
account number has been given to the holder of the account; or
(b) the holder of the account, or any
other signatory to the account, can conduct a transaction in relation to the
account.
ordering institution, in relation to an
electronic funds transfer instruction:
(a) in the case of a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(1); or
(b) in the case of a same‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(2); or
(c) in the case of a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(1); or
(d) in the case of a same‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(2).
owner‑managed branch of an ADI has the
meaning given by section 12.
partnership has the same meaning as in
the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997.
payee, in relation to an electronic funds
transfer instruction:
(a) in the case of a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(1); or
(b) in the case of a same‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(2); or
(c) in the case of a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(1); or
(d) in the case of a same‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(2).
payer, in relation to an electronic funds
transfer instruction:
(a) in the case of a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(1); or
(b) in the case of a same‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 8(2); or
(c) in the case of a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(1); or
(d) in the case of a same‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction—has the meaning given by
subsection 9(2).
penalty unit has the meaning given by
section 4AA of the Crimes Act 1914.
permanent establishment has the meaning given
by section 21.
person means any of the following:
(a) an individual;
(b) a company;
(c) a trust;
(d) a partnership;
(e) a corporation sole;
(f) a body politic.
Note: See also sections 237 (partnerships), 238
(unincorporated associations) and 239 (trusts with multiple trustees).
personal information has the same meaning as
in the Privacy Act 1988.
physical currency means the coin and printed
money (whether of Australia or of a foreign country) that:
(a) is designated as legal tender; and
(b) circulates as, and is customarily
used and accepted as, a medium of exchange in the country of issue.
police officer means:
(a) an AFP member; or
(b) a member of the police force or
police service of a State or Territory.
precious metal means:
(a) gold;
or
(b) silver; or
(c) platinum; or
(d) palladium; or
(e) iridium; or
(f) osmium; or
(g) rhodium; or
(h) a metal specified in the
regulations; or
(i) any alloy or other substance
containing:
(i) gold; or
(ii) silver; or
(iii) platinum; or
(iv) palladium; or
(v) iridium; or
(vi) osmium; or
(vii) rhodium; or
(viii) a metal specified in
the regulations.
prescribed foreign country means a foreign
country declared by the regulations to be a prescribed foreign country for the
purposes of this Act.
printed money means money comprising a note
printed, written or otherwise made on polymer, paper or any other material.
produce includes permit access to.
promissory note has the same meaning as in
paragraph 51(xvi) of the Constitution.
property means any legal or equitable estate
or interest in real or personal property, including a contingent or prospective
one, but does not include money.
provide includes supply, grant or confer.
providing a custodial or depository service
includes engaging in conduct that, under subsection 766E(1) of the Corporations
Act 2001, constitutes providing a custodial or depository service within
the meaning of Chapter 7 of that Act, but does not include:
(a) conduct covered by subsection
766E(3) of that Act; or
(b) conduct specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
public official
means:
(a) an employee or official of a
government body; or
(b) an individual who holds or
performs the duties of an appointment, office or position under a law of a
country or of part of a country; or
(c) an individual who holds or
performs the duties of an appointment, office or position created by custom or
convention of a country or of part of a country; or
(d) an individual who is otherwise in
the service of a government body (including service as a member of a military
force, police force or police service); or
(e) a member of the executive,
judiciary or magistracy of a country or of part of a country.
qualified accountant means a person who is a
member of:
(a) CPA Australia; or
(b) the Institute of Chartered Accountants in Australia; or
(c) a body specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
receives a designated service:
if a reporting entity provides a designated service to a customer, the customer
receives the designated service from the reporting entity.
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance
Services means the register maintained under subsection 75(1).
registrable designated remittance service
means a designated service that:
(a) is covered by item 31 or 32
of table 1 in section 6; and
(b) is provided by a person at or
through a permanent establishment of the person in Australia; and
(c) is not of a kind specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
registrable details, in relation to a person,
means such information relating to the person as is specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
Note: A person’s business name and business address are
examples of information that could be specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
remittance arrangement has the meaning given
by section 10.
reporting entity means a person who provides
a designated service.
reporting entity business premises means:
(a) premises, or a part of premises,
used wholly or partly for the purposes of the business operations of:
(i) a reporting entity; or
(ii) an agent of a
reporting entity; or
(b) premises, or a part of premises,
used wholly or partly for the purposes of the storage (whether in electronic
form or otherwise) of records relating to the business operations of:
(i) a reporting entity; or
(ii) an agent of a
reporting entity;
where the occupier of the
premises, or the part of premises, carries on a business of storing records at
the premises or the part of premises.
required transfer information has the meaning
given by section 70.
resident of a country has the meaning given
by section 14.
RSA (short for retirement savings account)
has the same meaning as in the Retirement Savings Accounts Act 1997.
RSA provider (short for retirement savings
account provider) has the same meaning as in the Retirement Savings Accounts
Act 1997.
same‑institution person‑to‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction has the meaning given by subsection 8(2).
same‑institution same‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction has the meaning given by subsection 9(2).
Secretary means the Secretary of the
Department.
security has the meaning given by
section 92 of the Corporations Act 2001 (for this purpose,
disregard subsections 92(3) and (4) of that Act).
Note: Security includes an interest in
a managed investment scheme.
self managed superannuation fund has the same
meaning as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993.
send, in relation to physical currency,
includes send through the post.
service includes anything covered by an item
of a table in section 6.
shell bank has the meaning given by
section 15.
signatory, in relation to an account with an
account provider, means the person, or one of the persons, on whose
instructions (whether required to be in writing or not and whether required to
be signed or not) the account provider conducts transactions in relation to the
account.
sinking fund policy has the same meaning as
in the Life Insurance Act 1995.
special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program has the meaning given by subsection
86(1).
standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program has the meaning given by subsection 84(1).
state of mind of a person includes:
(a) the knowledge, intention, opinion,
suspicion, belief or purpose of the person; and
(b) the person’s reasons for the
intention, opinion, belief or purpose.
State/Territory Royal Commission means:
(a) a Royal Commission of a State or
Territory; or
(b) a commission of inquiry of a State
or Territory.
stored value card does not include a debit
card or credit card but includes a portable device (other than a debit card or
credit card) that:
(a) is capable of:
(i) storing monetary value
in a form other than physical currency; or
(ii) being used to gain
access to monetary value stored in such a form; and
(b) is of a kind prescribed by the
regulations.
subject to a requirement includes subject to
a prohibition.
subsidiary has the same meaning as in the Corporations
Act 2001.
superannuation fund has the same meaning as
in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993.
suspicious matter reporting obligation has
the meaning given by subsection 41(1).
taxation law has the same meaning as in the Taxation
Administration Act 1953.
taxation officer means:
(a) a Second Commissioner of Taxation;
or
(b) a Deputy Commissioner of Taxation;
or
(c) a person appointed or engaged
under the Public Service Act 1999 and performing duties in the
Australian Taxation Office.
threshold transaction means:
(a) a transaction involving the
transfer of physical currency, where the total amount of physical currency
transferred is not less than $10,000; or
(b) a transaction involving the
transfer of money in the form of e‑currency, where the total amount of e‑currency
transferred is not less than $10,000; or
(c) if:
(i) the regulations
provide that this definition applies to a specified transaction involving
money; and
(ii) the regulations
provide that a specified amount is the transaction threshold for the specified
transaction;
the specified transaction, where
the total amount transferred is not less than the transaction threshold for the
transaction; or
(d) if:
(i) the regulations
provide that this definition applies to a specified transaction involving the
transfer of property; and
(ii) the regulations
provide that a specified amount is the transaction threshold for the specified
transaction;
the specified transaction, where
the total value transferred is not less than the transaction threshold for the
transaction.
Paragraphs (a) and (b) do not limit
paragraph (c).
Note 1: See also section 18 (translation of
foreign currency to Australian currency).
Note 2: See also section 19 (translation of e‑currency
to Australian currency).
Note 3: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
tracing information has the meaning given by
section 72.
transaction includes a transaction of a non‑commercial
nature.
transfer includes any act or thing, or any
series or combination of acts or things, that may reasonably be regarded as the
economic equivalent of a transfer (for example, debiting an amount from a
person’s account and crediting an equivalent amount to another person’s
account).
transferor entity, in relation to a
remittance arrangement, has the meaning given by paragraph 10(3)(a).
Treasury Department means the Department
administered by the Treasurer.
trust means a person in the capacity of
trustee or, as the case requires, a trust estate.
trustee has the same meaning as in the Income
Tax Assessment Act 1997.
trust estate has the same meaning as in the Income
Tax Assessment Act 1997.
ultimate transferee entity, in relation to a
remittance arrangement, has the meaning given by paragraph 10(3)(b).
unincorporated association means an
unincorporated association or body of persons.
unique reference number, for an electronic
funds transfer instruction, means a combination of any or all of the following:
(a) letters;
(b) digits;
(c) characters;
(d) symbols;
which distinguishes the transfer instruction in a way
that, either:
(e) alone; or
(f) in conjunction with any other
information in the transfer instruction;
enables the ordering institution to identify the payer.
Examples:
(a) a combination of a BSB and account number;
(b) a reference number generated by the ordering
institution.
value, in relation to
transferred property, means the market value of the property as at the time of
the transfer. In working out the market value of the property, disregard
anything that would prevent or restrict conversion of the property to money.
verification request, in relation to an
individual, means a request made by a reporting entity under paragraph
35A(1)(b) for an assessment in relation to the individual.
warrant premises, in relation to a monitoring
warrant, means the premises to which the warrant relates.
6
Designated services
(1) For the purposes of this Act, the
following tables define:
(a) the provision of a designated
service; and
(b) the person (the customer)
to whom the designated service is provided.
Table 1—Financial services
(2) Table 1 is
as follows:
|
Table 1—Financial
services
|
|
Item
|
Provision of a
designated service
|
Customer of the
designated service
|
|
1
|
in the capacity of account provider, opening an account,
where the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the holder of the account
|
|
2
|
in the capacity of account
provider for a new or existing account, allowing a person to become a
signatory to the account, where the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the
AML/CTF Rules
|
the signatory
|
|
3
|
in the capacity of account provider for an account,
allowing a transaction to be conducted in relation to the account, where the
account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
both:
(a) the holder of the account; and
(b) each other signatory to the account
|
|
4
|
accepting money on deposit (otherwise than by way of
deposit to an account), where the deposit‑taker is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the person in whose name the deposit is held
|
|
5
|
in the capacity of deposit‑taker
for a deposit, allowing a transaction to be conducted in relation to the deposit,
where the deposit‑taker is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the
AML/CTF Rules
|
the person in whose name
the deposit is held
|
|
6
|
making a loan, where the loan is made in the course of
carrying on a loans business
|
the borrower
|
|
7
|
in the capacity of:
(a) lender for a loan; or
(b) assignee (whether immediate or otherwise) of the lender
for a loan;
allowing the borrower to conduct a transaction in relation
to the loan, where the loan was made in the course of carrying on a loans
business
|
the borrower
|
|
8
|
factoring a receivable, where the receivable is factored
in the course of carrying on a factoring business
|
the person whose receivable is factored
|
|
9
|
forfaiting:
(a) a bill of exchange; or
(b) a promissory note;
where the bill or note is forfaited in the course of
carrying on a forfaiting business
|
the person whose bill or note is forfaited
|
|
10
|
supplying goods by way of
lease under a finance lease, where:
(a) the goods are not acquired
by a consumer (within the meaning of section 4B of the Competition
and Consumer Act 2010); and
(b) the supply is in the
course of carrying on a finance leasing business
|
the lessee
|
|
11
|
in the capacity of lessor under a finance lease, allowing
the lessee to conduct a transaction in relation to the lease, where:
(a) the goods were not acquired by a consumer (within the
meaning of section 4B of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010);
and
(b) the supply was in the course of carrying on a finance
leasing business
|
the lessee
|
|
12
|
supplying goods to a person by way of hire‑purchase,
where:
(a) the goods are not acquired by a consumer (within the
meaning of section 4B of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010);
and
(b) the supply is in the course of carrying on a business of
supplying goods
|
the person
|
|
13
|
in the capacity of supplier
of goods to a person by way of hire‑purchase, allowing the person to conduct
a transaction in relation to the hire‑purchase agreement concerned, where:
(a) the goods were not
acquired by a consumer (within the meaning of section 4B of the Competition
and Consumer Act 2010); and
(b) the supply was in the
course of carrying on a business of supplying goods
|
the person
|
|
14
|
in the capacity of account provider for an account,
providing a chequebook, or a similar facility, that enables the holder of the
account to draw a cheque on the account
|
the holder of the account
|
|
15
|
in the capacity of building society or credit union,
providing a chequebook, or a similar facility, that enables the holder of an
account with the building society or credit union to draw a cheque on an
account held by the building society or credit union
|
the holder of the account with the building society or
credit union
|
|
16
|
in the capacity of trustee or manager of a trust,
providing a chequebook, or a similar facility, that enables the holder of a
beneficial interest in the trust to draw a cheque on an account held by the
trustee or manager of the trust
|
the holder of the beneficial interest in the trust
|
|
17
|
issuing:
(a) a bill of exchange; or
(b) a promissory note; or
(c) a letter of credit;
to a person, where the
bill, note or letter is issued by:
(d) an ADI; or
(e) a bank; or
(f) a building society; or
(g) a credit union; or
(h) a person specified in the
AML/CTF Rules
|
the person
|
|
18
|
issuing a debit card that enables the holder of an account
to debit the account, where the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the holder of the account
|
|
18A
|
issuing a debit card that enables a signatory to an
account (other than the holder of the account) to debit the account, where
the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the signatory
|
|
19
|
in the capacity of building
society or credit union, issuing a debit card that enables the holder of an
account with the building society or credit union to debit an account held by
the building society or credit union, where the account provider of the last‑mentioned
account is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a person specified in the
AML/CTF Rules
|
the holder of the account
with building society or credit union
|
|
19A
|
in the capacity of building society or credit union,
issuing a debit card that enables a signatory to an account with the building
society or credit union (other than the holder of the account with the
building society or credit union) to debit an account held by the building
society or credit union, where the account provider of the last‑mentioned
account is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the signatory
|
|
20
|
in the capacity of trustee
or manager of a trust, issuing a debit card that enables the holder of a
beneficial interest in the trust to debit an account held by the trustee
or manager of the trust, where the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the
AML/CTF Rules
|
the holder of the
beneficial interest in the trust
|
|
20A
|
in the capacity of trustee or manager of a trust, issuing
a debit card that enables a signatory authorised by the holder of a
beneficial interest in the trust to debit an account held by the trustee or
manager of the trust, where the account provider is:
(a) an ADI; or
(b) a bank; or
(c) a building society; or
(d) a credit union; or
(e) a person specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the signatory
|
|
21
|
issuing a stored value card
to a person, where:
(a) the whole or a part of the
monetary value stored in connection with the card may be withdrawn in cash;
and
(b) the monetary value stored
in connection with the card is not less than:
(i) $1,000; or
(ii) if another amount is
specified in the regulations—that other amount
|
the person
|
|
22
|
increasing the monetary value stored in connection with a
stored value card held by a person, where:
(a) the whole or a part of the monetary value stored in
connection with the card may be withdrawn in cash; and
(b) the increased monetary value is not less than:
(i) $1,000; or
(ii) if another amount is specified in the regulations—that
other amount
|
the person
|
|
23
|
issuing a stored value card to a person, where:
(a) no part of the monetary value stored in connection with
the card may be withdrawn in cash; and
(b) the monetary value stored in connection with the card is
not less than:
(i) $5,000; or
(ii) if another amount is specified in the regulations—that
other amount
|
the person
|
|
24
|
increasing the monetary
value stored in connection with a stored value card held by a person, where:
(a) no part of the monetary
value stored in connection with the card may be withdrawn in cash; and
(b) the increased monetary
value is not less than:
(i) $5,000; or
(ii) if another amount is
specified in the regulations—that other amount
|
the person
|
|
25
|
issuing a traveller’s cheque to a person
|
the person
|
|
26
|
in the capacity of issuer of a traveller’s cheque, cashing
or redeeming a traveller’s cheque held by a person
|
the person
|
|
27
|
issuing a money order, postal order or similar order to a
person, where the face value of the order is not less than:
(a) $1,000; or
(b) if another amount is specified in the regulations—that
other amount
|
the person
|
|
28
|
in the capacity of issuer of a money order, postal order
or similar order, cashing or redeeming a money order, postal order or similar
order held by a person, where the face value of the order is not less than:
(a) $1,000; or
(b) if another amount is specified in the regulations—that
other amount
|
the person
|
|
29
|
in the capacity of ordering
institution, accepting an electronic funds transfer instruction from the
payer
|
the payer
|
|
30
|
in the capacity of beneficiary institution, making money
available to the payee as a result of an electronic funds transfer
instruction
|
the payee
|
|
31
|
in the capacity of a non‑financier carrying on a business
of giving effect to remittance arrangements, accepting an instruction from a
transferor entity for the transfer of money or property under a designated
remittance arrangement
|
the transferor entity
|
|
32
|
in the capacity of a non‑financier carrying on a business
of giving effect to remittance arrangements, making money or property
available, or arranging for it to be made available, to an ultimate
transferee entity as a result of a transfer under a designated remittance
arrangement
|
the ultimate transferee entity
|
|
32A
|
operating a network of persons by providing a platform or
operating system (however described), where:
(a) the persons in the network provide a designated service
referred to in item 31 or 32 by means of the platform or operating
system; and
(b) the operator is a non‑financier.
|
the person who provides designated services as part of the
network
|
|
33
|
in the capacity of agent of a person, acquiring or
disposing of:
(a) a security; or
(b) a derivative; or
(c) a foreign exchange contract;
on behalf of the person, where:
(d) the acquisition or disposal is in the course of carrying
on a business of acquiring or disposing of securities, derivatives or foreign
exchange contracts in the capacity of agent; and
(e) the service is not specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the person
|
|
34
|
in the capacity of agent of
a person, acquiring or disposing of:
(a) a bill of exchange; or
(b) a promissory note; or
(c) a letter of credit;
on behalf of the person,
where:
(d) the acquisition or
disposal is in the course of carrying on a business of acquiring or disposing
of bills of exchange, promissory notes or letters of credit in the capacity
of agent; and
(e) the service is not
specified in the AML/CTF Rules
|
the person
|
|
35
|
issuing or selling a
security or derivative to a person, where:
(a) the issue or sale is in
the course of carrying on a business of issuing or selling securities or
derivatives; and
(b) in the case of an issue of
a security or derivative—the issue does not consist of the issue by a company
of either of the following:
(i) a security of the company
(other than an interest in a managed investment scheme); or
(ii) an option to acquire a
security of the company (other than an option to acquire an interest in a managed
investment scheme); and
(ba) in the case of an issue
of a security or derivative—the issue does not consist of the issue by a
government body of a security of the government body or of an option to
acquire a security of the government body; and
(c) in the case of an issue of
a security or derivative—the issue is not an exempt financial market operator
issue; and
(d) such other conditions (if
any) as are set out in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied
|
the person
|
|
36
|
in the capacity of issuer of a bearer bond, redeeming a
bearer bond
|
the person to whom the proceeds of the redemption are paid
|
|
37
|
issuing, or undertaking liability as the insurer under, a
life policy or sinking fund policy
|
the holder of the policy
|
|
38
|
in the capacity of insurer for a life policy or sinking
fund policy, accepting a premium in relation to the policy
|
the holder of the policy
|
|
39
|
in the capacity of insurer for a life policy or sinking
fund policy, making a payment to a person under the policy
|
the person
|
|
40
|
in the capacity of provider of a pension or annuity,
accepting payment of the purchase price for a new pension or annuity, where:
(a) the provider is not a self managed superannuation fund;
or
(b) the pension or annuity is provided in the course of
carrying on a business of providing pensions or annuities
|
the person to whom the pension or annuity is to be paid
|
|
41
|
in the capacity of provider of a pension or annuity,
making a payment to a person by way of:
(a) a payment of the pension or annuity; or
(b) an amount resulting from the commutation, in whole or in
part, of the pension or annuity; or
(c) the residual capital value of the pension or annuity;
where the provider is not a self managed superannuation
fund
|
the person
|
|
42
|
in the capacity of trustee of:
(a) a superannuation fund (other than a self managed
superannuation fund); or
(b) an approved deposit fund;
accepting a contribution, roll‑over or transfer in respect
of a new or existing member of the fund
|
the member
|
|
43
|
in the capacity of trustee of:
(a) a superannuation fund (other than a self managed
superannuation fund); or
(b) an approved deposit fund;
cashing the whole or a part of an interest held by a
member of the fund
|
the member, or if the member has died, the person, or each
of the persons, who receives the cashed whole or a cashed part of the
relevant interest
|
|
43A
|
in the capacity of FHSA provider, accepting a
contribution, roll‑over or transfer to an FHSA in respect of a new or
existing FHSA holder
|
the FHSA holder
|
|
43B
|
in the capacity of FHSA provider, cashing the whole or a
part of an interest held by an FHSA holder
|
the FHSA holder, or if the FHSA holder has died, the
person, or each of the persons, who receives the cashed whole or a cashed
part of the relevant interest
|
|
44
|
in the capacity of RSA provider, accepting a contribution,
roll‑over or transfer to an RSA in respect of a new or existing RSA holder
|
the RSA holder
|
|
45
|
in the capacity of RSA provider, cashing the whole or a
part of an interest held by an RSA holder
|
the RSA holder, or if the RSA holder has died, the person,
or each of the persons, who receives the cashed whole or a cashed part of the
relevant interest
|
|
46
|
providing a custodial or depository service, where:
(a) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business of providing custodial or depository services; and
(b) the service is not an exempt legal practitioner service
|
the client of the service
|
|
47
|
providing a safe deposit
box, or similar facility, where:
(a) the service is provided in
the course of carrying on a business of providing safe deposit boxes or
similar facilities; and
(b) the service is not an
exempt legal practitioner service
|
the person who is, or each
of the persons who are, authorised to lodge items in the safe deposit box or
similar facility
|
|
48
|
guaranteeing a loan, where the guarantee is given in the
course of carrying on a business of guaranteeing loans
|
both:
(a) the lender; and
(b) the borrower
|
|
49
|
in the capacity of guarantor of a loan, making a payment
to the lender, where the guarantee was given in the course of carrying on a
business of guaranteeing loans
|
both:
(a) the lender; and
(b) the borrower
|
|
50
|
exchanging one currency (whether Australian or not) for
another (whether Australian or not), where the exchange is provided in the
course of carrying on a currency exchange business
|
the person whose currency is exchanged
|
|
51
|
collecting physical
currency, or holding physical currency collected, from or on behalf of a
person, where:
(a) the service is provided in
the course of carrying on a business of collecting or holding physical
currency; and
(b) the physical currency was
not collected by the provider of the service as consideration for the supply
of goods (within the meaning of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010);
and
(c) the physical currency was
not collected by the provider of the service as consideration for the supply
of services (within the meaning of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010)
other than the service of collecting or holding physical currency; and
(d) the physical currency was
not collected as a donation to a charity or charitable institution
|
the person
|
|
52
|
preparing a pay‑roll, on behalf of a person, in whole or
in part from physical currency collected, where the service is provided in
the course of carrying on a business of preparing pay‑rolls
|
the person
|
|
53
|
delivering physical currency (including pay‑rolls) to a
person, where the service is provided in the course of carrying on a business
of delivering physical currency
|
the person
|
|
54
|
in the capacity of holder
of an Australian financial services licence, making arrangements for a person
to receive a designated service (other than a service covered by this item)
|
the person
|
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Table 2—Bullion
(3) Table 2 is as follows:
|
Table 2—Bullion
|
|
Item
|
Provision of a
designated service
|
Customer of the
designated service
|
|
1
|
buying bullion, where the buying is in the course of
carrying on a business
|
the person from whom the bullion is bought
|
|
2
|
selling bullion, where the selling is in the course of
carrying on a business
|
the person to whom the bullion is sold
|
Table 3—Gambling services
(4) Table 3 is as follows:
|
Table 3—Gambling
services
|
|
Item
|
Provision of a
designated service
|
Customer of the
designated service
|
|
1
|
receiving or accepting a bet placed or made by a person,
where the service is provided in the course of carrying on a business
|
the person
|
|
2
|
placing or making a bet on
behalf of a person, where the service is provided in the course of carrying
on a business
|
the person
|
|
3
|
introducing a person who wishes to make or place a bet to
another person who is willing to receive or accept the bet, where the service
is provided in the course of carrying on a business
|
both:
(a) the person who wishes to make or place the bet; and
(b) the person who is willing to receive or accept the bet
|
|
4
|
paying out winnings in respect of a bet, where the service
is provided in the course of carrying on a business
|
the person to whom the winnings are paid
|
|
5
|
in the capacity of controller of an eligible gaming
machine venue, allowing a person to play a game on a gaming machine located
at the venue, where the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business
|
the person
|
|
6
|
accepting the entry of a person into a game, where:
(a) the game is played for money or anything else of value;
and
(b) the game is a game of chance or of mixed chance and
skill; and
(c) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business; and
(d) the game is not played on a gaming machine located at an
eligible gaming machine venue
|
the person
|
|
7
|
exchanging money for gaming chips or tokens, where the
service is provided in the course of carrying on a business
|
the person whose money is exchanged
|
|
8
|
exchanging gaming chips or
tokens for money, where the service is provided in the course of carrying on
a business
|
the person whose gaming
chips or tokens are exchanged
|
|
9
|
paying out winnings, or awarding a prize, in respect of a
game, where:
(a) the game is played for money or anything else of value;
and
(b) the game is a game of chance or of mixed chance and
skill; and
(c) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business; and
(d) the game is not played on a gaming machine located at an
eligible gaming machine venue
|
the person to whom the winnings are paid or the prize is
awarded
|
|
10
|
in the capacity of controller of an eligible gaming
machine venue, paying out winnings, or awarding a prize, in respect of a
game, where:
(a) the game is played on a gaming machine located at the
venue; and
(b) the winnings are paid out, or the prize is awarded, by
the controller as agent of the owner or lessee of the gaming machine; and
(c) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business
|
the person to whom the winnings are paid or the prize is
awarded
|
|
11
|
in the capacity of account
provider, opening an account, where:
(a) the account provider is a
person who provides a service covered by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9;
and
(b) the purpose, or one of the
purposes, of the account is to facilitate the provision of a service covered
by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9; and
(c) the service is provided in
the course of carrying on a business
|
the holder of the account
|
|
12
|
in the capacity of account provider for a new or existing
account, allowing a person to become a signatory to the account, where:
(a) the account provider is a person who provides a service
covered by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9; and
(b) the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the account is to
facilitate the provision of a service covered by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7,
8 or 9; and
(c) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business
|
the signatory
|
|
13
|
in the capacity of account
provider for an account, allowing a transaction to be conducted in relation
to the account, where:
(a) the account provider is a
person who provides a service covered by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9;
and
(b) the purpose, or one of the
purposes, of the account is to facilitate the provision of a service covered
by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9; and
(c) the service is provided in
the course of carrying on a business
|
both:
(a) the holder of the account;
and
(b) each other signatory to
the account
|
|
14
|
exchanging one currency (whether Australian or not) for
another (whether Australian or not), where:
(a) the exchange is provided by a person who provides a
service covered by item 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 or 9; and
(b) the service is provided in the course of carrying on a
business
|
the person whose currency is exchanged
|
Table 4—Prescribed services
(5) Table 4 is as follows:
|
Table 4—Prescribed
services
|
|
Item
|
Provision of a
designated service
|
Customer of the
designated service
|
|
1
|
providing a service specified in the regulations
|
the person who, under the regulations, is taken to be the
person to whom the service is provided
|
Geographical link
(6) An item of a table in this section, other
than item 32A of table 1, does not apply to the provision by a person of a
service to a customer unless:
(a) the service is provided at or
through a permanent establishment of the person in Australia; or
(b) both of the following
subparagraphs apply:
(i) the person is a
resident of Australia;
(ii) the service is
provided at or through a permanent establishment of the person in a foreign
country; or
(c) both of the following
subparagraphs apply:
(i) the person is a
subsidiary of a company that is a resident of Australia;
(ii) the service is
provided at or through a permanent establishment of the person in a foreign
country.
Note: For resident, see
section 14.
Amendment of items
(7) The regulations may amend an item of a
table in this section.
7
Services provided jointly to 2 or more customers
(1) For the purposes of this Act, if a
designated service is provided jointly to 2 or more customers, the service is
taken to have been provided to each of those customers.
(2) For the purposes of this Act, if 2 or
more persons are prospective joint customers in relation to a designated
service, each of those persons is taken to be a prospective customer in
relation to the designated service.
Note: See also the definition of customer
in section 5.
8
Person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instructions
Multiple‑institution person‑to‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction
(1) For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person (the payer)
instructs a person (the ordering institution) to transfer money
controlled by the payer to a third person (the payee) on the
basis that the transferred money will be made available to the payee by:
(i) being credited to an
account held by the payee with a fourth person (the beneficiary
institution); or
(ii) being paid to the
payee by a fourth person (the beneficiary institution); and
(b) either:
(i) the transfer is to be
carried out wholly or partly by means of one or more electronic communications;
or
(ii) the transfer
instruction is to be passed on wholly or partly by means of one or more
electronic communications; and
(c) the ordering institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules; and
(d) the beneficiary institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules;
then:
(e) the instruction is a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(f) if there are one or more persons
interposed between the ordering institution and the beneficiary
institution—disregard those interposed persons in working out the identities of
the following:
(i) the payer;
(ii) the ordering
institution;
(iii) the payee;
(iv) the beneficiary
institution.
Note: Transfer has an extended
meaning—see section 5.
Same‑institution person‑to‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction
(2) For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person (the payer)
instructs a person (the ordering institution) to transfer money
controlled by the payer to a third person (the payee) on the
basis that the transferred money will be made available to the payee by:
(i) being credited to an
account held by the payee with the ordering institution; or
(ii) being paid to the
payee by the ordering institution; and
(b) the transfer is to be carried out
wholly or partly by means of one or more electronic communications; and
(c) the ordering institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules;
then:
(d) the instruction is a same‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(e) for the purposes of the
application of this Act to making the money available to the payee, the
ordering institution may also be known as the beneficiary institution.
Note: Transfer has an extended
meaning—see section 5.
9 Same‑person
electronic funds transfer instructions
Multiple‑institution same‑person electronic funds
transfer instruction
(1) For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person (the payer)
instructs a person (the ordering institution) to transfer money
controlled by the payer to a third person (the beneficiary institution)
on the basis that the transferred money will be made available to the payer by:
(i) being credited to an
account held by the payer with the beneficiary institution; or
(ii) being paid to the
payer by the beneficiary institution; and
(b) either:
(i) the transfer is to be
carried out wholly or partly by means of one or more electronic communications;
or
(ii) the transfer
instruction is to be passed on wholly or partly by means of one or more
electronic communications; and
(c) the ordering institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules; and
(d) the beneficiary institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules;
then:
(e) the instruction is a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(f) for the purposes of the
application of this Act to making the money available to the payer, the payer
may also be known as the payee; and
(g) if there are one or more persons
interposed between the ordering institution and the beneficiary
institution—disregard those interposed persons in working out the identities of
the following:
(i) the payer;
(ii) the ordering
institution;
(iii) the beneficiary
institution.
Note: Transfer has an extended
meaning—see section 5.
Same‑institution same‑person electronic funds transfer
instruction
(2) For the
purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person (the payer)
instructs a person (the ordering institution) to make money
controlled by the payer available to the payer by:
(i) being credited to an
account held by the payer with the ordering institution; or
(ii) being paid to the
payer by the ordering institution; and
(b) the transfer is to be carried out
wholly or partly by means of one or more electronic communications; and
(c) the ordering institution is:
(i) an ADI; or
(ii) a bank; or
(iii) a building society; or
(iv) a credit union; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules;
then:
(d) the instruction is a same‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(e) for the purposes of the
application of this Act to making the money available to the payer:
(i) the payer may also be
known as the payee; and
(ii) the ordering
institution may also be known as the beneficiary institution.
10
Designated remittance arrangements etc.
(1) A reference in this Act to a designated
remittance arrangement is a reference to a remittance arrangement,
where:
(a) at least one of the persons
described in the following subparagraphs is a non‑financier:
(i) a person who accepts
an instruction from the transferor entity for the transfer of money or property
under the remittance arrangement;
(ii) a person who makes
money or property available, or arranges for it to be made available, to an
ultimate transferee entity as a result of a transfer under the remittance
arrangement; and
(c) the remittance arrangement satisfies
such other conditions (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Remittance arrangement
(2) A reference in this Act to a remittance
arrangement is a reference to an arrangement that is for the transfer
of money or property, and includes a reference to an arrangement that, under
the regulations, is taken to be a remittance arrangement for the purposes of
this Act.
Note: Transfer has an extended
meaning—see section 5.
Transferor entity and ultimate transferee entity
(3) For the purposes of the application of
this Act to a remittance arrangement:
(a) the transferor entity
is the person from whom an instruction is accepted for the transfer of money or
property under the arrangement; and
(b) the ultimate transferee
entity is the person to whom money or property is ultimately
transferred under the arrangement.
Note: Transfer has an extended
meaning—see section 5.
11
Control test
(1) For the purposes of this Act, the
question whether an individual passes the control test in relation to a company
is to be determined in the same manner in which that question is determined for
the purposes of section 1207Q of the Social Security Act 1991.
(2) For the purposes of this Act, the
question whether an individual passes the control test in relation to a trust is
to be determined in the same manner in which that question is determined for
the purposes of section 1207V of the Social Security Act 1991.
(3) For the purposes of subsections (1)
and (2) of this section, assume that paragraph 1207C(1)(g) and subsections
1207C(2), (3) and (4) of the Social Security Act 1991 had not been
enacted.
Note: The control test is used in sections 14
(residency) and 15 (shell banks).
12
Owner‑managed branches of ADIs
(1) For the purposes of this Act, if a person
is a party to an exclusive arrangement with an ADI to offer designated services
advertised or promoted under a single brand, trademark or business name, the
person is an owner‑managed branch of the ADI.
(2) For the purposes of this Act, if an owner‑managed
branch of an ADI proposes to provide, commences to provide, or provides, such a
designated service, the designated service is taken to have been proposed to be
provided, to have been commenced to have been provided, or to have been
provided, as the case requires, by the ADI.
13
Eligible gaming machine venues
For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person (the first person)
is in control of a particular venue; and
(b) one or more gaming machines are
located at the venue; and
(c) the first person is neither the
owner nor the lessee of the gaming machines; and
(d) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
then:
(e) the venue is an eligible
gaming machine venue; and
(f) the first person is the controller
of the venue.
14 Residency
Individual
(1) For the purposes of this Act, an
individual (including an individual in the capacity of trustee) is a resident
of a particular country if, and only if, the individual is ordinarily resident
in that country.
Note: See also subsections (7), (8) and (9).
Company
(2) For the purposes of this Act, a company
(including a company in the capacity of trustee) is a resident of a particular
country if, and only if:
(a) the company is incorporated in
that country; or
(b) both:
(i) an individual passes
the control test in relation to the company; and
(ii) the individual is a
resident of that country.
Trust
(3) For the purposes of this Act, a trust is
a resident of a particular country if, and only if:
(a) the trustee, or any of the
trustees, is a resident of that country; or
(b) both:
(i) an individual passes
the control test in relation to the trust; and
(ii) the individual is a
resident of that country; or
(c) both:
(i) a person benefits or
is capable (whether by the exercise of a power of appointment or otherwise) of
benefiting under the trust, either directly or through any interposed
companies, partnerships or trusts; and
(ii) the person is a
resident of that country.
Partnership
(4) For the purposes of this Act, a
partnership is a resident of a particular country if, and only if, a partner is
a resident of that country.
Corporation sole
(5) For the purposes of this Act, a
corporation sole is a resident of a particular country if, and only if, the
corporation sole was established in that country.
Body politic
(6) For the purposes of this Act, a body
politic of, or of a part of, a particular country is a resident of that
country.
When an individual is ordinarily resident in a
particular country
(7) The AML/CTF Rules may specify matters
that are to be taken into account in determining, for the purposes of this
section, whether an individual (including an individual in the capacity of
trustee) is ordinarily resident in a particular country.
(8) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that an individual
(including an individual in the capacity of trustee) is taken, for the purposes
of this section, to be ordinarily resident in a particular country if the
individual satisfies one or more specified conditions.
(9) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that an
individual (including an individual in the capacity of trustee) is taken, for
the purposes of this section, not to be ordinarily resident in a particular
country if the individual satisfies one or more specified conditions.
Note: The expression resident is used
in subsection 6(6) (designated services) and sections 100 (correspondent
banking) and 102 (countermeasures).
15
Shell banks
(1) For the purposes of this Act, a shell
bank is a corporation that:
(a) is incorporated in a foreign
country; and
(b) is authorised to carry on banking
business in its country of incorporation; and
(c) does not have a physical presence
in its country of incorporation; and
(d) is not an affiliate of another
corporation that:
(i) is incorporated in a
particular country; and
(ii) is authorised to carry
on banking business in its country of incorporation; and
(iii) has a physical
presence in its country of incorporation.
When a corporation has a physical presence in a country
(2) For the purposes of determining what is a
shell bank, a corporation has a physical presence in a country
if, and only if:
(a) the corporation carries on banking
business at a place in that country; and
(b) at least one full‑time employee of
the corporation performs banking‑related duties at that place.
When a corporation is affiliated with another
corporation
(3) For the purposes of determining what is a
shell bank, a corporation is affiliated with another corporation
if, and only if:
(a) the corporation is a subsidiary of
the other corporation; or
(b) at least one individual passes the
control test in relation to both corporations; or
(c) under the regulations, both
corporations are taken to be under common control.
16
Electronic communications
(1) Unless the contrary intention appears, in
determining the application of a provision of this Act, it is immaterial
whether any act or thing is or was done wholly or partly by means of one or
more electronic communications.
(2) Subsection (1) is enacted for the
avoidance of doubt.
17
Bearer negotiable instruments
(1) For the purposes of this Act, a bearer
negotiable instrument is:
(a) a bill of exchange; or
(b) a cheque; or
(c) a promissory note; or
(d) a bearer bond; or
(e) a traveller’s cheque; or
(f) a money order, postal order or similar
order; or
(g) a negotiable instrument not
covered by any of the above paragraphs.
Incomplete documents
(2) For the purposes of determining whether a
document is covered by paragraph (1)(f) or (g), it is immaterial that the
document is incomplete because the document does not specify:
(a) an amount to be paid; or
(b) a payee.
18
Translation of foreign currency to Australian currency
In determining, for the purposes of this
Act, whether an amount of foreign currency (including an amount in which a
document is denominated) is not less than an Australian dollar amount, the
amount of foreign currency is to be translated to Australian currency at the
exchange rate applicable at the relevant time.
19
Translation of e‑currency to Australian currency
In determining, for the purposes of this
Act, whether an amount of e‑currency is not less than an Australian dollar
amount, the amount of e‑currency is to be translated to Australian currency in
accordance with the method specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
20
Clubs and associations
For the purposes of this Act, the fact
that a club or association provides services to its members does not prevent
those services from being services provided in the course of carrying on a
business.
21
Permanent establishment
(1) For the purposes of this Act, a permanent
establishment of a person is a place at or through which the person
carries on any activities or business, and includes a place where the person is
carrying on activities or business through an agent.
Mobile services etc.
(2) For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a person; or
(b) an agent of a person acting on
behalf of the person;
provides a service while:
(c) operating on a mobile basis; or
(d) travelling;
in a particular country, the person is taken to provide
the service at or through a permanent establishment of the person
in that country.
Electronic communications
(3) The regulations may provide that, if:
(a) a person provides a specified
service wholly or partly by means of one or more electronic communications; and
(b) the conditions set out in the
regulations are taken to be satisfied in relation to a particular country;
then:
(c) the service is taken, for the
purposes of this Act, to be provided at or through a permanent establishment of
the person in that country; and
(d) the service is taken, for the
purposes of this Act, not to be provided at or through a permanent
establishment of the person in another country.
22
Officials of designated agencies etc.
(1) For the purposes of this Act, an official
of a designated agency or a non‑designated Commonwealth agency is a person who
is:
(a) the chief executive officer
(however described) of the agency; or
(b) a member or acting member of the
agency; or
(c) a member of the staff of the
agency; or
(d) an officer or employee of the
agency; or
(e) an officer, employee or other
individual under the control of the chief executive officer (however described)
of the agency; or
(f) an individual who, under the
regulations, is taken to be an official of the agency for the purposes of this
Act;
and includes:
(g) in the case of the Australian
Crime Commission—a person who is an examiner of the Australian Crime
Commission; and
(h) in the case of a Commonwealth
Royal Commission—a person who is:
(i) a legal practitioner
(however described) appointed to assist the Commission; and
(ii) a person authorised
under subsection (2); and
(i) in the case of a State/Territory
Royal Commission—a person who is:
(i) a legal practitioner
(however described) appointed to assist the Commission; and
(ii) a person authorised
under subsection (3).
Royal Commissions
(2) Either:
(a) the sole Commissioner of a
Commonwealth Royal Commission; or
(b) a member of a Commonwealth Royal
Commission;
may, by writing, authorise a person assisting the
Commission to be an official of the Commission for the purposes
of this Act.
(3) Either:
(a) the sole Commissioner of a
State/Territory Royal Commission; or
(b) a member of a State/Territory
Royal Commission;
may, by writing, authorise a person assisting the
Commission to be an official of the Commission for the purposes
of this Act.
Note: For revocation, see subsection 33(3) of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
23
Continuity of partnerships
For the purposes of this Act, a change in
the composition of a partnership does not affect the continuity of the
partnership.
24
Crown to be bound
(1) This Act binds the Crown in each of its
capacities.
(2) This Act does not make the Crown liable
to a pecuniary penalty or to be prosecuted for an offence.
(3) The protection in subsection (2)
does not apply to an authority of the Crown.
25
Extension to external Territories
This Act extends to every external
Territory.
26
Extra‑territorial application
(1) Unless the contrary intention appears,
this Act extends to acts, omissions, matters and things outside Australia.
Note: Subsection 6(6) is an example of a contrary
intention.
(2) Section 14.1 of the Criminal Code
does not apply to an offence against this Act.
Part 2—Identification procedures etc.
Division 1—Introduction
27
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• A reporting entity must
carry out a procedure to verify a customer’s identity before providing a
designated service to the customer. However, in special cases, the procedure
may be carried out after the provision of the designated service.
• Certain pre‑commencement
customers are subject to modified identification procedures.
• Certain low‑risk services
are subject to modified identification procedures.
• A reporting entity must
carry out ongoing customer due diligence.
Division 2—Identification procedures for certain pre‑commencement
customers
28
Identification procedures for certain pre‑commencement customers
Scope
(1) This section applies to the provision by
a reporting entity of a designated service (the post‑commencement
designated service) to a customer if, at a time before the
commencement of this section, the reporting entity commenced to provide a
designated service to the customer.
Exemption
(2) Sections 32 and 34 do not apply to
the provision by the reporting entity of the post‑commencement designated
service to the customer.
Note: For special rules about verification of
identity etc., see section 29.
Interpretation
(3) For the purposes of this section, assume
that Part 1 had been in force at all material times before the
commencement of this section.
29
Verification of identity of pre‑commencement customer etc.
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) at a time before the commencement
of this section, the reporting entity commenced to provide a designated service
to a customer; and
(b) after the commencement of this
section, a suspicious matter reporting obligation arises for the reporting
entity in relation to the customer.
Note 1: For suspicious matter reporting
obligation, see section 41.
Note 2: For tipping‑off offences, see section 123.
Requirement
(2) The reporting entity must:
(a) take such action as is specified
in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) do so within the time limit
allowed under the AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Interpretation
(4) For the purposes of this section, assume
that Part 1 had been in force at all material times before the
commencement of this section.
Division 3—Identification procedures for certain low‑risk services
30
Identification procedures for certain low‑risk services
Scope
(1) This section applies to the provision by
a reporting entity of a designated service to a customer if, under the AML/CTF
Rules, the service is taken to be a low‑risk designated service.
(2) Sections 32 and 34 do not apply to
the provision by the reporting entity of the designated service to the
customer.
Note: For special rules about verification of identity
etc., see section 31.
31
Verification of identity of low‑risk service customer etc.
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) at a particular time (the relevant
time), the reporting entity commences to provide a designated service
to a customer; and
(b) under the AML/CTF Rules, the
service is taken to be a low‑risk designated service; and
(c) at the relevant time or a later
time, a suspicious matter reporting obligation arises for the reporting entity
in relation to the customer.
Note 1: For suspicious matter reporting
obligation, see section 41.
Note 2: For tipping‑off offences, see section 123.
Requirement
(2) The reporting entity must:
(a) take such action as is specified
in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) do so within the time limit
allowed under the AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Division 4—Identification procedures etc.
32
Carrying out the applicable customer identification procedure before the
commencement of the provision of a designated service.
(1) A reporting entity must not commence to
provide a designated service to a customer if:
(a) there are no special circumstances
that justify carrying out the applicable customer identification procedure in
respect of the customer after the commencement of the provision of the service
(see section 33); and
(b) the reporting entity has not
previously carried out the applicable customer identification procedure in
respect of the customer; and
(c) neither section 28 nor
section 30 applies to the provision of the service.
Note 1: See also the definition of commence to
provide a designated service in section 5.
Note 2: See also section 38 (when applicable
customer identification procedure deemed to be carried out by a reporting
entity).
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
33
Special circumstances that justify carrying out the applicable customer
identification procedure after the commencement of the provision of a
designated service
For the purposes of this Act, if a
reporting entity commences to provide a designated service to a customer, there
are taken to be special circumstances that justify the carrying out of the
applicable customer identification procedure in respect of the customer after
the commencement of the provision of the service if, and only if:
(a) the service is specified in the
AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are set out in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
34
Carrying out the applicable customer identification procedure after the
commencement of the provision of a designated service etc.
(1) If:
(a) a reporting entity has commenced
to provide a designated service to a customer; and
(b) when the reporting entity
commenced to provide the designated service to the customer, there were special
circumstances that justified the carrying out of the applicable customer
identification procedure in respect of the customer after the commencement of
the provision of the service (see section 33); and
(c) the reporting entity has not
previously carried out the applicable customer identification procedure in
respect of the customer; and
(d) the reporting entity has not
carried out the applicable customer identification procedure in respect of the
customer within whichever of the following periods is applicable:
(i) if the designated
service is specified in the AML/CTF Rules—the period ascertained in accordance
with the AML/CTF Rules; or
(ii) in any other case—the
period of 5 business days after the day on which the reporting entity commenced
to provide the service; and
(e) neither section 28 nor
section 30 applies to the provision of the service;
then, after the end of the period referred to in whichever
of subparagraphs (d)(i) or (ii) is applicable, the reporting entity must
not continue to provide, and must not commence to provide, any designated
services to the customer until the reporting entity carries out the applicable
customer identification procedure in respect of the customer.
Note 1: See also the definition of commence to
provide a designated service in section 5.
Note 2: See also section 38 (when applicable
customer identification procedure deemed to be carried out by a reporting
entity).
(2) Subsection (1)
does not apply if:
(a) under the AML/CTF Rules, the
reporting entity is not required to carry out the applicable customer
identification procedure in respect of the customer; and
(b) the reporting entity takes such action
as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
Periods
(4) A period ascertained in accordance with
AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes of subparagraph (1)(d)(i):
(a) must commence at the time when the
reporting entity commences to provide the designated service concerned; and
(b) may be expressed to end on the
occurrence of a specified event.
(5) Paragraph (4)(b) does not limit
subparagraph (1)(d)(i).
Division 5—Verification of identity etc.
35
Verification of identity of customer etc.
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) at a particular time, the
reporting entity has carried out, or has purported to carry out, the applicable
customer identification procedure in respect of a particular customer to whom
the reporting entity provided, or proposed to provide, a designated service;
and
(b) at a later time, any of the
following subparagraphs applies:
(i) an event prescribed by
the AML/CTF Rules happens;
(ii) a circumstance
specified in the AML/CTF Rules comes into existence;
(iii) a period ascertained
in accordance with the AML/CTF Rules ends.
Note: See also section 38 (when applicable
customer identification procedure deemed to be carried out by a reporting
entity).
Requirement
(2) The reporting entity must:
(a) take such action as is specified
in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) do so within the time limit
allowed under the AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Division 5A—Use and disclosure of personal information for the purposes
of verifying an individual’s identity
35A
Reporting entities may disclose certain personal information to credit
reporting agencies for identity verification purposes
(1) A reporting entity may, to assist in
verifying the identity of an individual for the purposes of this Act, the
regulations or the AML/CTF Rules:
(a) disclose any or all of the
following personal information to a credit reporting agency for the purposes of
making a request referred to in paragraph (b):
(i) the individual’s name;
(ii) the individual’s
residential address;
(iii) the individual’s date
of birth; and
(b) request the credit reporting
agency to provide an assessment of whether the personal information so
disclosed matches (in whole or part) personal information contained in a credit
information file in the possession or control of the credit reporting agency.
(2) A reporting entity must not make a
verification request in relation to an individual unless, before making the
request:
(a) the individual was given
information about:
(i) the reasons for making
the request; and
(ii) the personal
information about the individual that may be disclosed to the credit reporting
agency; and
(iii) the fact that the
reporting entity may request the credit reporting agency to provide an
assessment of whether the personal information matches (in whole or part)
personal information contained in a credit information file in the possession
or control of the credit reporting agency; and
(iv) the fact that the
credit reporting agency may prepare and provide to the reporting entity such an
assessment; and
(v) the fact that the
credit reporting agency may use the personal information about the individual,
and the names, residential addresses and dates of birth contained in credit
information files of other individuals, for the purpose of preparing such an
assessment; and
(b) the individual expressly agreed to
the making of the request and the disclosure of the personal information; and
(c) an alternative means of verifying
the identity of the individual was made available to the individual.
(3) A disclosure of personal information
under paragraph (1)(a) is taken to be authorised by law for the purposes
of paragraph 2.1(g) of National Privacy Principle 2 in Schedule 3 to the Privacy
Act 1988.
35B
Credit reporting agencies may use and disclose certain personal information for
identity verification purposes
(1) A credit reporting agency that receives a
verification request from a reporting entity in relation to an individual may:
(a) prepare and provide to the
reporting entity an assessment in accordance with this section of whether any
or all of the following personal information matches (in whole or part)
personal information contained in a credit information file in the possession
or control of the credit reporting agency:
(i) the individual’s name;
(ii) the individual’s
residential address;
(iii) the individual’s date
of birth; and
(b) use the personal information about
the individual, and the names, residential addresses and dates of birth
contained in credit information files of other individuals, for the purpose of
preparing the assessment.
(2) An assessment provided under
subsection (1) to a reporting entity:
(a) must be an overall assessment of
the extent of the match between the personal information disclosed by the
reporting entity and personal information contained in a credit information
file in the possession or control of the credit reporting agency; and
(b) must not include separate
assessments of the match between particular categories of that personal
information.
(3) To the extent that providing an
assessment in relation to an individual involves a disclosure of personal
information contained in an individual’s credit information file to a person,
body or agency other than the individual, the disclosure is taken to be
authorised by law for the purposes of paragraph 18K(1)(m) of the Privacy Act
1988.
35C
Reporting entities to notify inability to verify identity
(1) This section applies if:
(a) a reporting entity makes a
verification request in relation to an individual; and
(b) an assessment is provided in
relation to the individual; and
(c) the reporting entity is unable to
verify the identity of the individual, having regard to the assessment.
(2) The reporting entity must give a written
notice to the individual:
(a) stating that the reporting entity
is unable to verify the identity of the individual having regard to the
assessment; and
(b) specifying the name of the credit
reporting agency that provided the assessment; and
(c) offering the individual an
alternative means of verifying the identity of the individual.
35D
Verification information not to be included on credit information file
(1) A credit reporting agency must not
include on an individual’s credit information file personal information that
relates to a verification request or an assessment in relation to the
individual.
(2) This section has effect despite
subsection 18K(5) of the Privacy Act 1988.
35E
Retention of verification information—credit reporting agencies
(1) A credit reporting agency that receives a
verification request in relation to an individual must retain the following
information for 7 years after the request was received:
(a) the name of the reporting entity
that made the request;
(b) the date on which the request was
made;
(c) the personal information about the
individual that was provided by the reporting entity to the credit reporting
agency;
(d) the date on which the credit
reporting agency provided an assessment (if any) in relation to the individual;
(e) such other information about the
verification request as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) A credit reporting agency that retains
information under subsection (1) must delete the information at the end of
the 7 year period referred to in that subsection.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) are civil
penalty provisions.
35F
Retention of verification information—reporting entities
(1) A reporting entity that makes a
verification request in relation to an individual must make a record of the
following;
(a) the name of the credit reporting
agency to which the request was made;
(b) the personal information about the
individual that was provided by the reporting entity to the credit reporting
agency;
(c) the assessment (if any) provided
by the credit reporting agency in relation to the individual;
(d) such other information about the
verification request as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The reporting entity must retain the
record, or a copy of the record, until the end of the first 7 year period:
(a) that began at a time after the
verification request was made; and
(b) throughout the whole of which the
reporting entity did not provide any designated services to the individual.
(3) A reporting entity that retains a record,
or a copy of a record, under subsection (2) must delete the record at the
end of the 7 year period referred to in that subsection.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsections (1), (2) and (3) are
civil penalty provisions.
Designated business groups
(5) If:
(a) a reporting entity is part of a
designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions as are
specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) or (3) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
35G
Access to verification information
A credit reporting agency or a reporting
entity in possession or control of personal information, or other information
of a kind referred to in subsection 35E(1), that relates to a verification
request or an assessment in relation to an individual must take reasonable
steps to ensure that the individual can obtain access to the information.
35H
Unauthorised access to verification information—offence
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person obtains access to
information; and
(b) the information is personal
information that relates to a verification request or an assessment in relation
to an individual.
Penalty: 300 penalty units.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the
access is obtained in accordance with, or as otherwise authorised by, this Act
or any other law.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
35J
Obtaining access to verification information by false pretences—offence
A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person obtains access to
information; and
(b) the information is personal
information that relates to a verification request or an assessment in relation
to an individual; and
(c) the information is obtained by
false pretence.
Penalty: 300 penalty units.
35K
Unauthorised use or disclosure of verification information—offence
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person uses or discloses
information; and
(b) the information is personal
information that relates to a verification request or an assessment in relation
to an individual.
Penalty: 300 penalty units.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the
use or disclosure is in accordance with, or as otherwise authorised by, this
Act or any other law.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
35L
Breach of requirement is an interference with privacy
A breach of a requirement of this
Division in relation to an individual constitutes:
(a) in the case of a breach by a
credit reporting agency—an act or practice involving an interference with the
privacy of the individual for the purposes of section 13 of the Privacy
Act 1988; or
(b) in the case of a breach by a
reporting entity—an act or practice involving an interference with the privacy
of the individual for the purposes of section 13A of the Privacy Act
1988.
Note: These acts or practices may be the subject of
complaints under section 36 of that Act.
Division 6—Ongoing customer due diligence
36
Ongoing customer due diligence
(1) A reporting entity must:
(a) monitor the reporting entity’s
customers in relation to the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia, with a view to:
(i) identifying; and
(ii) mitigating; and
(iii) managing;
the risk the reporting entity
may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of a designated
service at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism;
and
(b) do so in accordance with the
AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
Exemption
(3) This section does not apply to a
designated service covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6.
Note: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
Designated business groups
(4) If a reporting entity is a member of a
designated business group, the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (1) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
Division 7—General provisions
37
Applicable customer identification procedures may be carried out by an agent of
a reporting entity
(1) The principles of agency apply in
relation to the carrying out by a reporting entity of an applicable customer
identification procedure or an identity verification procedure.
(2) For example, a reporting entity may
authorise another person to be its agent for the purposes of carrying out
applicable customer identification procedures or identity verification
procedures on the reporting entity’s behalf.
(3) To avoid doubt, if a reporting entity
provides a designated service to a customer through an agent of the reporting
entity, the reporting entity may authorise:
(a) that agent; or
(b) any other person;
to be its agent for the purposes of carrying out the
applicable customer identification procedure or an identity verification
procedure in respect of the customer on the reporting entity’s behalf.
(4) This section does not otherwise limit the
operation of the principles of agency for the purposes of this Act.
38
Applicable customer identification procedures deemed to be carried out by a
reporting entity
If:
(a) a reporting entity carried out the
applicable customer identification procedure in respect of a particular
customer to whom the reporting entity provided, or proposed to provide, a
designated service; and
(b) the applicable customer
identification procedure was carried out in such circumstances as are specified
in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) the customer is or becomes a
customer to whom another reporting entity provides, or proposes to provide, a
designated service; and
(d) such other conditions set out in
the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
this Act (other than Part 10) has effect as if the
applicable customer identification procedure had also been carried out in
respect of the customer by the other reporting entity.
39
General exemptions
(1) This Part does not apply to a designated
service that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Part does not apply to a designated service that is
of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) This Part does not apply to a designated
service that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Part does not apply to a designated service that is
provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) This Part does not apply to a designated
service that is provided by a reporting entity at or through a permanent
establishment of the entity in a foreign country.
(6) This Part (other than Division 6)
does not apply to a designated service covered by item 40, 42 or 44 of
table 1 in section 6.
(7) This Part does not apply to a designated
service covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6 if the service
relates to arrangements for a person to receive a designated service covered by
item 40, 42 or 44 of that table.
Note 1: Item 40 of table 1 in section 6 deals
with accepting payment of the purchase price for a new pension or annuity.
Note 2: Item 42 of table 1 in section 6 deals
with accepting a superannuation contribution, roll‑over or transfer.
Note 3: Item 44 of table 1 in section 6 deals
with accepting an RSA contribution, roll‑over or transfer.
Note 4: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
Part 3—Reporting obligations
Division 1—Introduction
40
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• A reporting entity must
give the AUSTRAC CEO reports about suspicious matters.
• If a reporting entity
provides a designated service that involves a threshold transaction, the
reporting entity must give the AUSTRAC CEO a report about the transaction.
• If a person sends or
receives an international funds transfer instruction, the person must give the
AUSTRAC CEO a report about the instruction.
• A reporting entity may be
required to give AML/CTF compliance reports to the AUSTRAC CEO.
Division 2—Suspicious matters
41
Reports of suspicious matters
Suspicious matter reporting obligation
(1) A suspicious matter reporting obligation
arises for a reporting entity in relation to a person (the first person)
if, at a particular time (the relevant time):
(a) the reporting entity commences to
provide, or proposes to provide, a designated service to the first person; or
(b) both:
(i) the first person
requests the reporting entity to provide a designated service to the first
person; and
(ii) the designated service
is of a kind ordinarily provided by the reporting entity; or
(c) both:
(i) the first person
inquires of the reporting entity whether the reporting entity would be willing
or prepared to provide a designated service to the first person; and
(ii) the designated service
is of a kind ordinarily provided by the reporting entity;
and any of the following conditions is satisfied:
(d) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that the first person
is not the person the first person claims to be;
(e) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that an agent of the
first person who deals with the reporting entity in relation to the provision
or prospective provision of the designated service is not the person the agent
claims to be;
(f) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that information that
the reporting entity has concerning the provision, or prospective provision, of
the service:
(i) may be relevant to
investigation of, or prosecution of a person for, an evasion, or an attempted
evasion, of a taxation law; or
(ii) may be relevant to
investigation of, or prosecution of a person for, an evasion, or an attempted
evasion, of a law of a State or Territory that deals with taxation; or
(iii) may be relevant to
investigation of, or prosecution of a person for, an offence against a law of
the Commonwealth or of a State or Territory; or
(iv) may be of assistance in
the enforcement of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 or regulations under
that Act; or
(v) may be of assistance in
the enforcement of a law of a State or Territory that corresponds to the Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002 or regulations under that Act;
(g) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that the provision,
or prospective provision, of the service is preparatory to the commission of an
offence covered by paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of the definition of financing
of terrorism in section 5;
(h) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that information that
the reporting entity has concerning the provision, or prospective provision, of
the service may be relevant to the investigation of, or prosecution of a person
for, an offence covered by paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of the definition of financing
of terrorism in section 5;
(i) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that the provision,
or prospective provision, of the service is preparatory to the commission of an
offence covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of money
laundering in section 5;
(j) at the relevant time or a later
time, the reporting entity suspects on reasonable grounds that information that
the reporting entity has concerning the provision, or prospective provision, of
the service may be relevant to the investigation of, or prosecution of a person
for, an offence covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of money
laundering in section 5.
Report
(2) If a suspicious matter reporting
obligation arises for a reporting entity in relation to a person, the reporting
entity must give the AUSTRAC CEO a report about the matter within:
(a) if paragraph (1)(d), (e),
(f), (i) or (j) applies—3 business days after the day on which the reporting
entity forms the relevant suspicion; or
(b) if paragraph (1)(g) or (h)
applies—24 hours after the time when the reporting entity forms the relevant
suspicion.
(3) A report under subsection (2) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) contain a statement of the grounds
on which the reporting entity holds the relevant suspicion.
Note 1: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Note 2: Section 49 deals with the provision of
further information, and the production of documents, by the reporting entity.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Reasonable grounds for suspicion
(5) The AML/CTF Rules may specify matters
that are to be taken into account in determining whether there are reasonable
grounds for a reporting entity to form a suspicion of a kind mentioned in
paragraph (1)(d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i) or (j).
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
42
Exemptions
(1) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Division does not apply to a designated service
that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Division does not apply to a designated service
that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is provided by a reporting entity at or through a
permanent establishment of the entity in a foreign country.
Division 3—Threshold transactions
43
Reports of threshold transactions
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) the reporting entity commences to
provide, or provides, a designated service to a customer; and
(b) the provision of the service
involves a threshold transaction.
Report
(2) The reporting entity must, within 10
business days after the day on which the transaction takes place, give the
AUSTRAC CEO a report of the transaction.
(3) A report under subsection (2) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the transaction as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note 1: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Note 2: Section 49 deals with the provision of
further information, and the production of documents, by the reporting entity.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
44
Exemptions
(1) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Division does not apply to a designated service
that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Division does not apply to a designated service
that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) This Division does not apply to a
designated service that is provided by a reporting entity at or through a
permanent establishment of the entity in a foreign country.
(6) This Division does not apply to a
designated service covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6.
Note: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
Division 4—International funds transfer instructions
45
Reports of international funds transfer instructions
Scope
(1) This section applies to a person if:
(a) the person is:
(i) the sender of an
international funds transfer instruction transmitted out of Australia; or
(ii) the recipient of an
international funds transfer instruction transmitted into Australia; and
(b) if the regulations provide that
this paragraph is applicable—the total amount or value that is to be, or is, transferred
is not less than the amount specified in the regulations; and
(c) such other conditions (if any) as
are set out in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied.
Note: International funds transfer instruction
is defined by section 46.
Report
(2) The person must, within 10 business days
after the day on which the instruction was sent or received by the person, give
the AUSTRAC CEO a report about the instruction.
(3) A report under subsection (2) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Funds transfer chain etc.
(5) For the purposes of this section, it is
immaterial whether the person sent or received the international funds transfer
instruction in the capacity of interposed institution in a funds transfer
chain.
Note: For funds transfer chain, see
subsection 64(2).
Exemptions
(6) This section does not apply to an
international funds transfer instruction that is of a kind specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
(7) This section does not apply to an
international funds transfer instruction that is sent or received in
circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
46
International funds transfer instruction
For the purposes of this Act, the
following table defines international funds transfer instruction:
|
International funds
transfer instruction
|
|
Item
|
Type of instruction
|
The instruction is an international
funds transfer instruction if ...
|
|
1
|
electronic funds transfer instruction
|
(a) the instruction is accepted at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in Australia; and
(b) the transferred money is to be, or is, made available to
the payee at or through a permanent establishment of the beneficiary
institution in a foreign country
|
|
2
|
electronic funds transfer instruction
|
(a) the instruction is accepted at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in a foreign country; and
(b) the transferred money is to be, or is, made available to
the payee at or through a permanent establishment of the beneficiary
institution in Australia
|
|
3
|
instruction given by a
transferor entity for the transfer of money or property under a designated
remittance arrangement
|
(a) the instruction is
accepted at or through a permanent establishment of a non‑financier in
Australia; and
(b) the money or property is
to be, or is, made available to the ultimate transferee entity at or through
a permanent establishment of a person in a foreign country
|
|
4
|
instruction given by a transferor entity for the transfer
of money or property under a designated remittance arrangement
|
(a) the instruction is accepted at or through a permanent
establishment of a person in a foreign country; and
(b) the money or property is to be, or is, made available to
the ultimate transferee entity at or through a permanent establishment of a non‑financier
in Australia
|
Division 5—AML/CTF compliance reports
47
AML/CTF compliance reports
Scope
(1) This section applies if the AML/CTF Rules
provide that, for the purposes of this section:
(a) a specified period is a reporting
period; and
(b) a specified period beginning at
the end of a reporting period is the lodgment period for that reporting period.
A period specified under paragraph (a) or (b) may be
a recurring period.
Report
(2) A reporting entity must, within the
lodgment period for a reporting period, give the AUSTRAC CEO a report relating
to the reporting entity’s compliance with this Act, the regulations and the
AML/CTF Rules during the reporting period.
(3) A report under subsection (2) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information as is
required by the approved form.
Note: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Exemption
(5) This section does not apply to a
reporting entity if all of the designated services provided by the reporting
entity are covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6.
Note: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
Designated business groups
(6) If a reporting entity is a member of a
designated business group, the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
(7) If 2 or more reporting entities are
members of a designated business group, reports under subsection (2)
relating to those reporting entities may be set out in the same document.
Different reporting entities
(8) AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes of
this section may make different provision with respect to different reporting
entities. This does not limit subsection 33(3A) of the Acts Interpretation
Act 1901.
48
Self‑incrimination
(1) A person is not excused from giving a
report under section 47 on the ground that the report might tend to
incriminate the person or expose the person to a penalty.
(2) However:
(a) the report given; or
(b) giving the report;
is not admissible in evidence against the person:
(c) in civil proceedings other than:
(i) proceedings under
section 175 for a contravention of subsection 47(2); or
(ii) proceedings under the Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this Act; or
(d) in criminal proceedings other
than:
(i) proceedings for an
offence against section 136 that relates to section 47; or
(ii) proceedings for an
offence against section 137.1 of the Criminal Code that relates to
section 47 of this Act.
Division 6—General provisions
49
Further information to be given to the AUSTRAC CEO etc.
(1) If a reporting entity communicates
information to the AUSTRAC CEO under section 41, 43 or 45, then:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(b) the Commissioner of the Australian
Federal Police; or
(c) the Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission; or
(d) the Commissioner of Taxation; or
(e) the Chief Executive Officer of
Customs; or
(f) the Integrity Commissioner; or
(g) an investigating officer who is
carrying out an investigation arising from, or relating to the matters mentioned
in, the information;
may, by written notice given to the reporting entity,
require the reporting entity:
(h) to give such further information
as is specified in the notice, within the period and in the manner specified in
the notice, to the extent to which the reporting entity has that information;
or
(i) to produce, within the period and
in the manner specified in the notice, such documents as are:
(i) specified in the
notice; and
(ii) relevant to the matter
to which the communication under section 41, 43 or 45 relates.
Compliance
(2) A reporting entity must comply with a
notice under subsection (1).
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
50
Request to obtain information about the identity of holders of foreign credit
cards and foreign debit cards
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) under section 49, the AUSTRAC
CEO or the Commissioner of Taxation has required the reporting entity to give
information about the identity of:
(i) the holder of, or a
signatory to, a particular credit card account; or
(ii) the holder of, or a
signatory to, a particular debit card account; and
(b) the account relates to a credit
card, or a debit card, that was issued by a person (the card issuer)
outside Australia; and
(c) the reporting entity does not have
that information.
Direction to reporting entity
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO or the Commissioner of
Taxation may, by written notice given to the reporting entity, direct the
reporting entity to give the card issuer a request, in a form specified in the
notice, to give the information to the reporting entity.
(3) The reporting entity must comply with the
direction within 10 business days after the day on which the direction is
given.
Report by reporting entity
(4) If the reporting entity gives the card
issuer a request under subsection (2) that was directed by the AUSTRAC
CEO, the reporting entity must, within:
(a) 20 business days after the day on
which the subsection (2) direction was given; or
(b) if the AUSTRAC CEO, by written
notice given to the reporting entity, allows a longer period—that longer
period;
give the AUSTRAC CEO a report about the card issuer’s
response, or lack of response, to the request.
(5) If the
reporting entity gives the card issuer a request under subsection (2) that
was directed by the Commissioner of Taxation, the reporting entity must,
within:
(a) 20 business days after the day on
which the subsection (2) direction was given; or
(b) if the Commissioner of Taxation,
by written notice given to the reporting entity, allows a longer period—that
longer period;
give the Commissioner of Taxation a report about the card
issuer’s response, or lack of response, to the request.
(6) A report under subsection (4) or (5)
must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) in a case where the card issuer
has given the information to the reporting entity—contain the information; and
(c) contain such other information (if
any) relating to the matter as is required by the approved form.
Note: For additional rules about reports given to
the AUSTRAC CEO, see section 244.
Civil penalty
(7) Subsections (3), (4) and (5) are
civil penalty provisions.
51
Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code
If a person, or an officer, employee or
agent of a person, communicates or gives information under section 41, 43,
45 or 49, the person, officer, employee or agent is taken, for the purposes of
Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code, not to have
been in possession of that information at any time.
Part 4—Reports about cross‑border movements of physical currency
and bearer negotiable instruments
Division 1—Introduction
52
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• Cross‑border movements of
physical currency must be reported to the AUSTRAC CEO, a customs officer or a
police officer if the total value moved is above a threshold.
• If a bearer negotiable
instrument is produced to a police officer or a customs officer by a person
leaving or arriving in Australia, the officer may require the person to give a
report about the instrument to the AUSTRAC CEO, a customs officer or a police
officer.
Division 2—Reports about physical currency
53
Reports about movements of physical currency into or out of Australia
Offence
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) either:
(i) the person moves
physical currency into Australia; or
(ii) the person moves
physical currency out of Australia; and
(b) the total amount of the physical
currency is not less than $10,000; and
(c) a report in respect of the
movement has not been given in accordance with this section.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 500 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Strict liability applies to
paragraph (1)(c).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
Civil penalty
(3) A person must not:
(a) move physical currency into Australia; or
(b) move physical currency out of Australia;
if:
(c) the total amount of the physical
currency is not less than $10,000; and
(d) a report in respect of the
movement has not been given in accordance with this section.
(4) Subsection (3) is a civil penalty
provision.
Commercial carriers
(5) Subsections (1) and (3) do not apply
to a person if:
(a) the person is a commercial
passenger carrier; and
(b) the physical currency is in the
possession of any of the carrier’s passengers.
(6) Subsections (1) and (3) do not apply
to a person if:
(a) the person is a commercial goods
carrier; and
(b) the physical currency is carried
on behalf of another person; and
(c) the other person has not disclosed
to the carrier that the goods carried on behalf of the other person include
physical currency.
(7) A person who wishes to rely on
subsection (5) or (6) bears an evidential burden in relation to that
matter.
Requirements for reports under this section
(8) A report under this section must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter being reported as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) be given to the AUSTRAC CEO, a
customs officer or a police officer; and
(d) comply with the applicable timing
rule in subsection 54(1).
Note 1: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Note 2: Division 8 of Part 15 sets out
special enforcement powers relating to this section.
Note 3: See also section 18 (translation of
foreign currency to Australian currency).
54
Timing of reports about physical currency movements
Applicable timing rule
(1) A report under section 53 must be
given:
(a) if the movement of the physical
currency is to be effected by a person bringing the physical currency into
Australia with the person—at the time worked out under subsection (2); or
(b) if the movement of the physical
currency is to be effected by a person taking the physical currency out of
Australia with the person—at the time worked out under subsection (3); or
(c) if the physical currency is to be
taken out of Australia by a person by consignment of the physical currency:
(i) through the post to a
place outside Australia; or
(ii) to another person for
carriage to a place outside Australia by that other person or by a third
person;
at any time before the time when
the physical currency is irrevocably committed by the first‑mentioned person to
the Australian Postal Corporation or to the other person, as the case may be;
or
(d) in any other case—at any time
before the movement of the physical currency takes place.
Inwards movements
(2) For the purposes of
paragraph (1)(a), the applicable time is:
(a) if the person:
(i) moves the physical
currency into Australia on an aircraft or ship; and
(ii) after disembarking,
goes to the place at which customs officers examine baggage;
as soon as the person reaches
that place; or
(b) in any other case—the first
opportunity after arrival in Australia that the person has to give the report
under section 53.
Outwards movements
(3) For the purposes of
paragraph (1)(b), the applicable time is:
(a) if:
(i) the movement of the
physical currency is to be effected on an aircraft or ship; and
(ii) the person, before
embarking, goes to the place at which customs officers examine passports;
as soon as the person reaches
that place; or
(b) in any other case—as soon as the
person reaches the customs officer who is to examine the person’s passport in
relation to the person leaving Australia or, if there is no such examination,
the last opportunity before leaving Australia that the person has to give the
report under section 53.
55
Reports about receipts of physical currency from outside Australia
Offence
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person receives physical
currency moved to the person from outside Australia; and
(b) at the time of the receipt, the
total amount of the physical currency is not less than $10,000; and
(c) a report in respect of the
movement has not been made in accordance with section 53 before the
movement; and
(d) a report in respect of the receipt
is not given in accordance with this section before the end of the period of 5
business days beginning on the day of the receipt.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 500 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Strict liability applies to
paragraphs (1)(c) and (d).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
Civil penalty
(3) A person must not receive physical
currency moved to the person from outside Australia if:
(a) at the time of the receipt, the
total amount of the physical currency is not less than $10,000; and
(b) a report in respect of the
movement has not been made in accordance with section 53 before the
movement; and
(c) a report in respect of the receipt
is not given in accordance with this section before the end of the period of 5
business days beginning on the day of the receipt.
(4) Subsection (3) is a civil penalty
provision.
Requirements for reports under this section
(5) A report under this section must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter being reported as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) be given to the AUSTRAC CEO, a
customs officer or a police officer.
Note 1: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Note 2: See also section 18 (translation of
foreign currency to Australian currency).
56
Obligations of customs officers and police officers
If a report under section 53 or 55
is given to a customs officer or a police officer, the officer must, within 5
business days after the day of receipt of the report, forward the report to the
AUSTRAC CEO.
57
Movements of physical currency out of Australia
(1) This section sets out the 2 situations in
which a person moves physical currency out of Australia.
(2) For the purposes of this Act, a person moves
physical currency out of Australia if the person takes or sends the physical
currency out of Australia.
(3) For the purposes of this Act, if a
person:
(a) arranges to leave Australia on an aircraft or ship; and
(b) for the purpose of leaving Australia, goes towards an aircraft or ship through an embarkation area; and
(c) either:
(i) takes physical
currency into the embarkation area; or
(ii) has physical currency
in his or her baggage; and
(d) does not give a report about the
physical currency when at the place in the embarkation area at which customs
officers examine passports;
the person is taken to have moved the
physical currency out of Australia.
58
Movements of physical currency into Australia
For the purposes of this Act, a person moves
physical currency into Australia if the person brings or sends the physical
currency into Australia.
Division 3—Reports about bearer negotiable instruments
59 Reports
about movements of bearer negotiable instruments into or out of Australia
Reporting requirement
(1) If, under section 200:
(a) a person produces to a police
officer or a customs officer one or more bearer negotiable instruments that the
person has with him or her; or
(b) a police officer or a customs
officer conducts an examination or search and finds one or more bearer
negotiable instruments that a person has with him or her;
the officer may require the person to give the AUSTRAC
CEO, a customs officer or a police officer a report about the bearer negotiable
instruments immediately.
Requirements for reports under this section
(2) A report under subsection (1) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter being reported as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Offence
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 500 penalty units, or
both.
Civil penalty
(4) If a person is subject to a requirement
under subsection (1), the person must not engage in conduct that breaches
the requirement.
(5) Subsection (4) is a civil penalty
provision.
Note: Division 8 of Part 15 sets out
special enforcement powers relating to this section.
60
Obligations of customs officers and police officers
If a report under section 59 is
given to a customs officer or a police officer, the officer must, within 5
business days after the day of receipt of the report, forward the report to the
AUSTRAC CEO.
Division 4—Information about reporting obligations
61
Power to affix notices about reporting obligations
Scope
(1) This section applies to a written notice:
(a) that relates to reporting
obligations under this Part; and
(b) the form and contents of which are
specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Power to affix notices
(2) A customs officer may affix, or arrange
for another person to affix, one or more notices:
(a) on any part of an aircraft or
ship; or
(b) in any other place specified in
the AML/CTF Rules.
Offence
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) a notice has been affixed under this
section; and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct results in:
(i) interference with the
notice; or
(ii) the removal of the
notice; or
(iii) defacement of the
notice.
Penalty: 50 penalty units.
(4) Subsection (3) does not apply if the
person’s conduct is authorised by the AUSTRAC CEO or the Chief Executive
Officer of Customs.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (4) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(5) An offence against subsection (3) is
an offence of strict liability.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
62
Notice about reporting obligations to be given to travellers to Australia
Scope
(1) This section applies to a written notice:
(a) that relates to reporting
obligations under this Part; and
(b) the form and contents of which are
specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Notice to be given to travellers
(2) If an aircraft or ship leaves a place
outside Australia to travel to a place in Australia without stopping at any
other place outside Australia, the person in charge of the aircraft or ship
must:
(a) give a copy of the notice, or
communicate the information contained in the notice in the manner prescribed by
the AML/CTF Rules, to all persons travelling on the aircraft or ship (including
members of the crew); or
(b) cause a copy of the notice to be
given, or cause to be communicated the information contained in the notice in
the manner prescribed by the AML/CTF Rules, to all persons travelling on the
aircraft or ship (including members of the crew).
Offence
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: 50 penalty units.
(4) An offence against subsection (3) is
an offence of strict liability.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
Part 5—Electronic funds transfer instructions
Division 1—Introduction
63
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• Electronic funds transfer
instructions must include certain information about the origin of the
transferred money.
Division 2—2 or more institutions involved in the transfer
64
Electronic funds transfer instructions—2 or more institutions involved in the
transfer
Scope
(1) This section applies to:
(a) a multiple‑institution person‑to‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(b) a multiple‑institution same‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction.
Note: For exemptions, see section 67.
Funds transfer chain
(2) For the purposes of this Act:
(a) the following persons are taken to
form a funds transfer chain:
(i) the ordering
institution;
(ii) each person (if any)
interposed between the ordering institution and the beneficiary institution;
(iii) the beneficiary
institution; and
(b) each person in the chain is to be
known as an institution.
Obligations of ordering institution
(3) If the transfer instruction is accepted
by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of the
ordering institution in Australia, then, before the ordering institution:
(a) passes on the transfer
instruction; or
(b) dispatches the transfer
instruction; or
(c) takes any other action to carry
out the transfer instruction;
the ordering institution must obtain the complete payer
information.
Note: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
(4) If:
(a) the
transfer instruction is accepted by the ordering institution at or through a
permanent establishment of the ordering institution in Australia; and
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO, by written notice
given to the ordering institution, requests the ordering institution to give
the complete payer information to the AUSTRAC CEO;
the ordering institution must comply with the request
within:
(c) if the request was given to the
ordering institution within 6 months after the acceptance of the transfer
instruction by the ordering institution—3 business days after the day on which
the request was given; or
(d) otherwise—10 business days after
the day on which the request was given.
Note: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
(5) If:
(a) the transfer instruction is
accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of
the ordering institution in Australia; and
(b) the beneficiary institution, by
written notice given to the ordering institution, requests the ordering
institution to give the complete payer information to the beneficiary
institution;
the ordering institution must comply with the request
within:
(c) if the request was given to the
ordering institution within 6 months after the acceptance of the transfer
instruction by the ordering institution—3 business days after the day on which
the request was given; or
(d) otherwise—10 business days after
the day on which the request was given.
Note: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
(6) If:
(a) the ordering institution is in the
funds transfer chain; and
(b) the transfer instruction is
accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of
the ordering institution in Australia;
then, before the ordering institution passes on the
transfer instruction to another person in the chain, the ordering institution
must ensure that the instruction includes the required transfer information.
Note: For required transfer information,
see section 70.
Obligations of interposed institutions in the funds
transfer chain
(7) If:
(a) an institution is in the funds
transfer chain; and
(b) either:
(i) the institution is an
interposed institution and the transfer instruction is passed on to the
institution at or through a permanent establishment of the institution in Australia; or
(ii) the institution is an
interposed institution and the transfer instruction is to be passed on by the
institution at or through a permanent establishment of the institution in Australia; and
(c) either:
(i) the transfer
instruction is accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in Australia; or
(ii) the making available
by the beneficiary institution of the transferred money would take place at or
through a permanent establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia; and
(d) some or all of the required
transfer information was passed on to the institution by another institution in
the funds transfer chain;
then:
(e) if the transfer instruction was
accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of
the ordering institution in a foreign country—before passing on the transfer
instruction to another institution in the chain, the interposed institution
must ensure that the instruction includes the tracing information; or
(f) in any other case—before passing
on the transfer instruction to another institution in the chain, the interposed
institution must ensure that the instruction includes so much of the required
transfer information as was passed on to the interposed institution as
mentioned in paragraph (d).
Note 1: For required transfer information,
see section 70.
Note 2: For tracing information, see
section 72.
Civil penalty
(8) Subsections (3), (4), (5), (6) and
(7) are civil penalty provisions.
65
Request to include customer information in certain international electronic
funds transfer instructions
Scope
(1) This section applies to:
(a) a multiple‑institution person‑to‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(b) a multiple‑institution same‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction;
if:
(c) the instruction is accepted at or
through a permanent establishment of the ordering institution in a foreign
country; and
(d) the transferred money is to be, or
is, made available to the payee at or through a permanent establishment of the
beneficiary institution in Australia.
Note: For exemptions, see section 67.
Direction to beneficiary institution
(2) If:
(a) the beneficiary institution has
received 2 or more electronic funds transfer instructions from a particular
ordering institution; and
(b) at least one of the electronic
funds transfer instructions does not include the required transfer information;
and
(c) the AUSTRAC CEO, by written notice
given to the beneficiary institution, directs the beneficiary institution to
give the ordering institution a request (in a form specified in the notice) to
include required transfer information in all future electronic funds transfer
instructions passed on by the ordering institution to the beneficiary
institution;
the beneficiary institution must comply with the direction
within 10 business days after the day on which the direction is given.
Report by beneficiary institution
(3) If the beneficiary institution gives the
ordering institution a request under subsection (2), the beneficiary
institution must, within:
(a) 20 business days after the day on
which the subsection (2) direction was given; or
(b) if the AUSTRAC CEO, by written
notice given to the beneficiary institution, allows a longer period—that longer
period;
give the AUSTRAC CEO a report about the ordering
institution’s response, or lack of response, to the request.
(4) A report under subsection (3) must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain such information relating
to the matter as is required by the approved form.
Note: For additional rules about reports, see
section 244.
Civil penalty
(5) Subsections (2) and (3) are civil
penalty provisions.
Powers of beneficiary institution
(6) If an electronic funds transfer
instruction received by the beneficiary institution does not include the
required transfer information, the beneficiary institution may, for the purpose
set out in subsection (7), refuse to make the transferred money available
to the payee until the required transfer information is passed on to the
beneficiary institution.
(7) The purpose referred to in
subsection (6) is to:
(a) identify; or
(b) mitigate; or
(c) manage;
the risk the beneficiary institution may reasonably face
that the making available by the beneficiary institution of transferred money
at or through a permanent establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(d) money laundering; or
(e) financing of terrorism.
Protection from liability
(8) An action, suit or proceeding (whether
criminal or civil) does not lie against:
(a) the beneficiary institution; or
(b) an officer, employee or agent of
the beneficiary institution acting in the course of his or her office,
employment or agency;
in relation to anything done, or omitted to be done, in
good faith by the beneficiary institution, officer, employee or agent in the
exercise, or purported exercise, of the power conferred by subsection (6).
Division 3—Only one institution involved in the transfer
66
Electronic funds transfer instructions—only one institution involved in the
transfer
Scope
(1) This section applies to:
(a) a same‑institution person‑to‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(b) a same‑institution same‑person
electronic funds transfer instruction if the instruction is to be carried out
otherwise than by way of transferring money from an account held by the payer
with the ordering institution in a particular country to another account held
by the payer with the ordering institution in that country.
Note: For exemptions, see section 67.
Obligations of beneficiary institution
(2) If:
(a) the transfer instruction is
accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of
the ordering institution in Australia; or
(b) the making available by the
beneficiary institution of the transferred money would take place at or through
a permanent establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia;
then, before the beneficiary institution makes the
transferred money available to the payee, the beneficiary institution must
obtain the complete payer information.
Note: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
(3) If:
(a) either:
(i) the transfer
instruction is accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in Australia; or
(ii) the making available
by the beneficiary institution of the transferred money would take place at or
through a permanent establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia; and
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO, by written notice
given to the ordering institution, requests the institution to give the
complete payer information to the AUSTRAC CEO;
the ordering institution must comply with the request
within:
(c) if the request was given to the
ordering institution within 6 months after the acceptance of the transfer
instruction by the ordering institution—3 business days after the day on which
the request was given; or
(d) otherwise—10 business days after
the day on which the request was given.
Note: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
Civil penalty
(6) Subsections (2) and (3) are civil
penalty provisions.
Division 4—General provisions
67
Exemptions
Approved third‑party bill payment systems
(1) This Part does not apply to an
instruction that arises from the use of an approved third‑party bill payment
system.
Debit cards and credit cards
(2) This Part does not apply to an
instruction that arises from the use of a debit card or a credit card if:
(a) the use does not involve obtaining
a cash advance; and
(b) the number of the card is included
in the instruction; and
(c) the card is not of a kind
specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(d) the use does not take place in
circumstances of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2A) This Part does not apply to an instruction
that arises from the use of a debit card or a credit card at a branch of a
financial institution if:
(a) the number of the card is included
in the instruction; and
(b) the card is not of a kind
specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) the use does not take place in
circumstances of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Cheques
(3) This Part does not apply to an
instruction given by way of a cheque unless the cheque is of a kind specified
in the AML/CTF Rules.
ATMs
(4) This Part does not apply to an
instruction given by the use of an ATM if:
(a) the ATM is not of a kind specified
in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) the use does not take place in
circumstances of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Merchant terminals
(4A) This Part does not apply to an instruction
given by way of the operation of a merchant terminal if:
(a) the operation is authorised by a
financial institution; and
(b) the merchant terminal is not of a
kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) the operation does not take place
in circumstances of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Inter‑financial institution transfers
(5) This Part does not apply to a transfer of
money between 2 financial institutions if each financial institution acts on
its own behalf.
Prescribed instructions
(6) This Part does not apply to an
instruction of a kind prescribed by the AML/CTF Rules.
68
Defence of relying on information supplied by another person
Scope
(1) This section applies to section 175
proceedings for a contravention of a civil penalty provision of Division 2
or 3.
Defence
(2) In the proceedings, it is a defence if
the defendant proves that:
(a) the contravention in respect of
which the proceedings were instituted was due to reasonable reliance on
information given by another person; and
(b) the other person did not give the
information in the other person’s capacity as an officer, employee or agent of
the person who relied on the information.
69
Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code
If a person, or an officer, employee or
agent of a person, communicates or gives information to the AUSTRAC CEO under
section 64 or 66, the person, officer, employee or agent is taken, for the
purposes of Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code,
not to have been in possession of that information at any time.
70
Required transfer information
For the purposes of the application of
this Act to an electronic funds transfer instruction, the required
transfer information is:
(a) if:
(i) the transfer
instruction is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules; or
(ii) the ordering
institution accepts the transfer instruction in circumstances specified in the
AML/CTF Rules; or
(iii) the transfer
instruction is, or is to be, passed on, or carried out, in circumstances specified
in the AML/CTF Rules;
the tracing information; or
(b) if:
(i) the ordering
institution accepts the transfer instruction at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in a particular country; and
(ii) the beneficiary institution
makes, or is to make, the money available at or through a permanent
establishment of the beneficiary institution in another country; and
(iii) the transfer
instruction is a batched electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(iv) paragraph (a) does
not apply;
the tracing information; or
(c) if:
(i) the ordering
institution accepts the transfer instruction at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in a particular country; and
(ii) the beneficiary
institution makes, or is to make, the money available at or through a permanent
establishment of the beneficiary institution in another country; and
(iii) the transfer
instruction is not a batched electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(iv) paragraph (a) does
not apply;
the complete payer information;
or
(d) if:
(i) the ordering
institution accepts the transfer instruction at or through a permanent
establishment of the ordering institution in Australia; and
(ii) the beneficiary
institution makes, or is to make, the money available at or through a permanent
establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia; and
(iii) paragraph (a)
does not apply;
the tracing information.
Note 1: For complete payer information,
see section 71.
Note 2: For tracing information, see
section 72.
71
Complete payer information
For the purposes of the application of
this Act to an electronic funds transfer instruction, the complete payer
information is:
(a) the name of the payer; and
(b) one of the following:
(i) the payer’s full business
or residential address (not being a post office box);
(ii) a unique
identification number given to the payer by the Commonwealth or an authority of
the Commonwealth (for example, an Australian Business Number or an Australian
Company Number);
(iii) a unique
identification number given to the payer by the government of a foreign
country;
(iv) the identification
number given to the payer by the ordering institution;
(v) if the payer is an
individual—the payer’s date of birth, the country of the payer’s birth and the
town, city or locality of the payer’s birth; and
(c) if the money is, or is to be,
transferred from a single account held by the payer with the ordering
institution in Australia—the account number for the account; and
(d) if paragraph (c) does not
apply—either:
(i) a unique reference
number for the transfer instruction; or
(ii) if the money is, or is
to be, transferred from a single account held by the payer with the ordering
institution—the account number for the account.
72
Tracing information
For the purposes of the application of
this Act to an electronic funds transfer instruction, the tracing
information is:
(a) if the money is to be transferred
from an account held by the payer with the ordering institution—the account number;
or
(b) in any case—a unique reference
number for the transfer instruction.
Part 6—Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services
73
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• A person must not provide a
registrable designated remittance service unless the person’s name is entered
on the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services.
74
Unregistered persons must not provide registrable designated remittance
services
(1) A person must not provide a registrable
designated remittance service if:
(a) the person’s name; and
(b) the person’s registrable details;
are not entered on the Register of Providers of Designated
Remittance Services.
Offences
(2) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 500 penalty units, or
both.
(3) Strict liability applies to paragraphs (2)(b)
and (c).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(4) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the
person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement; and
(d) the AUSTRAC CEO previously:
(i) gave the person a
direction under subsection 191(2) in relation to subsection (1) of this
section; or
(ii) accepted an
undertaking given by the person under section 197 in relation to subsection (1)
of this section; and
(e) that was the only occasion on
which the AUSTRAC CEO previously gave such a direction to, or accepted such an
undertaking from, the person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 4 years or 1,000 penalty units, or
both.
(5) Strict liability applies to
paragraphs (4)(b) and (c).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(6) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement; and
(d) the AUSTRAC CEO previously:
(i) gave the person a
direction under subsection 191(2) in relation to subsection (1) of this
section; or
(ii) accepted an
undertaking given by the person under section 197 in relation to
subsection (1) of this section; and
(e) that was not the only occasion on
which the AUSTRAC CEO previously gave such a direction to, or accepted such an
undertaking from, the person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 7 years or 2,000 penalty units, or
both.
(7) Strict liability applies to
paragraphs (6)(b) and (c).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(8) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the
person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement; and
(d) either:
(i) the person had
previously been convicted of an offence against subsection (2), (4) or
(6), and that conviction has not been set aside or quashed; or
(ii) an order had
previously been made against the person under section 19B of the Crimes
Act 1914 in respect of an offence against subsection (2), (4) or (6),
and that order has not been set aside.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 7 years or 2,000 penalty units, or
both.
(9) Strict liability applies to
paragraphs (8)(b) and (c).
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
Civil penalty
(10) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
Defences
(11) If, in:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against subsection (2), (4), (6) or (8); or
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of subsection (1);
it is proved that the defendant’s name was not entered on
the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services, it is a defence if
the defendant proves that:
(c) the defendant had, at a time
before the offence or contravention, made an application to the AUSTRAC CEO
under section 76 for:
(i) the defendant’s name;
and
(ii) the defendant’s
registrable details;
to be entered on the Register of
Providers of Designated Remittance Services; and
(d) the defendant had not subsequently
requested the AUSTRAC CEO under section 78 to remove:
(i) the defendant’s name;
and
(ii) the defendant’s
registrable details;
from the Register of Providers
of Designated Remittance Services.
Note: In criminal proceedings, a defendant bears a
legal burden in relation to the matters in subsection (11)—see
section 13.4 of the Criminal Code.
(12) If, in:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against subsection (2), (4), (6) or (8); or
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of subsection (1);
it is proved that the defendant’s registrable details were
not entered on the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services, it
is a defence if the defendant proves that the defendant had, at a time before
the contravention, informed the AUSTRAC CEO, in writing, of the registrable
details.
Note: In criminal proceedings, a defendant bears a
legal burden in relation to the matters in subsection (12)—see
section 13.4 of the Criminal Code.
75
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO must maintain a register
for the purposes of this Part, to be known as the Register of Providers of
Designated Remittance Services.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may maintain the register
by electronic means.
(3) The register is not a legislative
instrument.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may make provision for
and in relation to either or both of the following:
(a) the correction of entries in the
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services;
(b) any other matter relating to the
administration or operation of the Register of Providers of Designated
Remittance Services.
76
Registration
(1) If:
(a) a person makes a written application
to the AUSTRAC CEO for:
(i) the person’s name; and
(ii) the person’s
registrable details;
to be entered on the Register of
Providers of Designated Remittance Services; and
(b) the person’s name is not already
entered on that register;
the AUSTRAC CEO must enter:
(c) the person’s name; and
(d) the person’s registrable details;
on that register.
(2) An application must be in the approved
form.
77
Updating of entries on the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance
Services
(1) If:
(a) a person’s name is entered on the
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services; and
(b) the person informs the AUSTRAC
CEO, in writing, of a change of name;
the AUSTRAC CEO must change the relevant entry in the
register.
(2) If:
(a) a person’s name is entered in the
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services; and
(b) the person’s registrable details
have also been entered on the register; and
(c) the person informs the AUSTRAC
CEO, in writing, that there has been a change in any of those registrable
details;
the AUSTRAC CEO must make the relevant change in the
details entered on the register.
78
Removal of entries from the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance
Services
(1) This section applies if:
(a) a person’s name is entered on the
Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services; and
(b) the person requests the AUSTRAC
CEO, in writing, to remove:
(i) the person’s name; and
(ii) the person’s
registrable details;
from the register.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO must remove:
(a) the person’s name; and
(b) the person’s registrable details;
from the register.
79
Access to the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance Services
(1) A reporting entity may request the
AUSTRAC CEO, in writing, to tell the reporting entity whether the name of a
specified person is entered on the Register of Providers of Designated
Remittance Services.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with the
reporting entity’s request as soon as practicable after the request is made.
79A
Evidentiary certificates
(1) In:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against subsection 74(2), (4), (6) or (8); or
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of subsection 74(1);
a certificate signed by the AUSTRAC CEO stating that the
defendant’s name was not entered on the Register of Providers of Designated
Remittance Services is prima facie evidence of the matters in the certificate.
(2) In:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against subsection 74(2), (4), (6) or (8); or
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of subsection 74(1);
a certificate signed by the AUSTRAC CEO stating that the
defendant’s registrable details were not entered on the Register of Providers
of Designated Remittance Services is prima facie evidence of the matters in the
certificate.
(3) A document purporting to be a certificate
mentioned in subsection (1) or (2) is taken to be such a certificate and
to have been duly given, unless the contrary is established.
Part 7—Anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
programs
Division 1—Introduction
80
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• A reporting entity must
have and comply with an anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program.
• An anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program is divided into Part A (general) and Part B
(customer identification).
• Part A of an anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program is designed to identify,
mitigate and manage the risk a reporting entity may reasonably face that the
provision by the reporting entity of designated services at or through a
permanent establishment of the entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently
or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(a) money
laundering; or
(b) financing of
terrorism.
• Part B of an anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program sets out the applicable
customer identification procedures for customers of the reporting entity.
Division 2—Reporting entity’s obligations
81
Reporting entity must have an anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(1) A reporting entity must not commence to
provide a designated service to a customer if the reporting entity:
(a) has not adopted; and
(b) does not maintain;
an anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program that applies to the reporting entity.
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
82
Compliance with Part A of an anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
Compliance with program
(1) If a reporting entity has adopted:
(a) a standard anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program; or
(b) a joint anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program;
that applies to the reporting entity, the reporting entity
must comply with:
(c) Part A of the program; or
(d) if the program has been varied on
one or more occasions—Part A of the program as varied.
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
Exceptions
(3) Subsection (1)
does not apply to a particular provision of Part A of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program if the provision was not
included in the program in order to comply with the requirements specified in
AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes of paragraph 84(2)(c).
(4) Subsection (1) does not apply to a
particular provision of Part A of a joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program if the provision was not included in the program in order to
comply with the requirements specified in AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes
of paragraph 85(2)(c).
(5) A person who wishes to rely on
subsection (3) or (4) bears an evidential burden in relation to that
matter.
Division 3—Anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
programs
83
Anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing programs
(1) An anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program is:
(a) a standard anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program (see section 84); or
(b) a joint anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program (see section 85); or
(c) a special anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program (see section 86).
(2) An anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program is not a legislative instrument.
84
Standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program
(1) A standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program is a written program
that:
(a) applies to a particular reporting
entity; and
(b) is divided into the following
parts:
(i) Part A (general);
(ii) Part B (customer
identification).
Note: A standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program does not bind the reporting entity unless the reporting entity
adopts the program (see section 82).
Part A (general)
(2) Part A of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program is a part:
(a) the primary purpose of which is
to:
(i) identify; and
(ii) mitigate; and
(iii) manage;
the risk the reporting entity
may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism;
and
(b) if the reporting entity provides
designated services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting
entity in a foreign country—another purpose of which is to ensure that the reporting
entity takes such action (if any) as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules in
relation to the provision by the reporting entity of designated services at or
through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in a foreign country;
and
(c) that complies with such
requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Part B (customer identification)
(3) Part B of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program is a part:
(a) the sole or primary purpose of
which is to set out the applicable customer identification procedures for the
purposes of the application of this Act to customers of the reporting entity;
and
(b) that complies with such
requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Reviews
(4) A requirement under paragraph (2)(c)
may relate to reviews of a standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program.
Holder of an Australian financial services licence
(5) A reporting entity is not entitled to
adopt or maintain a standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program if all of the designated services provided by the reporting
entity are covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6.
Note: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
Variation
(6) A standard anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program may be varied, so long as the varied
program is a standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program.
Registered scheme—compliance plan
(7) If a reporting entity is the responsible
entity of a registered scheme (within the meaning of the Corporations Act
2001), the reporting entity’s standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program may be set out in the same document as the registered
scheme’s compliance plan under that Act.
85
Joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program
(1) A joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program is a written program
that:
(a) applies to each reporting entity
that from time to time belongs to a particular designated business group; and
(b) is divided into the following
parts:
(i) Part A (general);
(ii) Part B (customer
identification).
Note: A joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program does not bind any of those reporting entities unless the
reporting entity adopts the program (see section 82).
Part A (general)
(2) Part A of a joint anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program is a part:
(a) the primary purpose of which is
to:
(i) identify; and
(ii) mitigate; and
(iii) manage;
the risk each of those reporting
entities may reasonably face that the provision by the relevant reporting
entity of designated services at or through a permanent establishment of the
relevant reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or
otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism;
and
(b) if any of those reporting entities
provides designated services at or through a permanent establishment of the
relevant reporting entity in a foreign country—another purpose of which is to
ensure that the relevant reporting entity takes such action (if any) as is specified
in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to the provision by the relevant reporting
entity of designated services at or through a permanent establishment of the
relevant reporting entity in a foreign country; and
(c) that complies with such
requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Part B (customer identification)
(3) Part B of a joint anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program is a part:
(a) the sole or primary purpose of
which is to set out the applicable customer identification procedures for the
purposes of the application of this Act to customers of each of those reporting
entities; and
(b) that complies with such
requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Different reporting entities
(4) A joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program may make different provision with respect to different
reporting entities. This does not limit subsection 33(3A) of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
Reviews
(5) A requirement under paragraph (2)(c)
may relate to reviews of a joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program.
Variation
(7) A joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program may be varied, so long as the varied program is a joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program.
86
Special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program
(1) A special anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program is a written program:
(a) that applies to a particular
reporting entity, where all of the designated services provided by the
reporting entity are covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6; and
(b) the sole or primary purpose of
which is to set out the applicable customer identification procedures for the
purposes of the application of this Act to customers of the reporting entity;
and
(c) that complies with such
requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note 1: A special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program does not bind the reporting entity unless the reporting
entity adopts the program (see section 82).
Note 2: Item 54 of table 1 in section 6
covers a holder of an Australian financial services licence who arranges for a
person to receive a designated service.
(2) A reporting entity is not entitled to
adopt or maintain a special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program unless all of the designated services provided by the
reporting entity are covered by item 54 of table 1 in section 6.
Variation
(3) A special anti‑money laundering and
counter‑terrorism financing program may be varied, so long as the varied
program is a special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program.
87
Revocation of adoption of anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing
program
If a reporting entity has adopted an
anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program that applies to
the reporting entity, this Part does not prevent the reporting entity from:
(a) revoking that adoption; and
(b) adopting another anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program that applies to the
reporting entity.
88
Different applicable customer identification procedures
(1) Each of the following:
(a) Part B of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program;
(b) Part B of a joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program;
(c) a special anti‑money laundering
and counter‑terrorism financing program;
(d) AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes
of paragraph 84(3)(b), 85(3)(b) or 86(1)(c);
may make different provision with respect to:
(e) different kinds of customers; or
(f) different kinds of designated
services; or
(g) different circumstances.
(2) Subsection (1) does not limit
subsection 33(3A) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
Note: The following are examples of different kinds
of customers:
(a) individuals;
(b) companies;
(c) trusts;
(d) partnerships.
89
Applicable customer identification procedures—agent of customer
Standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(1) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 84(3)(b) may require that Part B of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if:
(a) a customer of the reporting entity
deals with the reporting entity in relation to the provision of a designated
service through an agent of the customer; and
(b) the customer does so in
circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to the agent.
Joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(2) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 85(3)(b) may require that Part B of a joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if:
(a) a customer of the reporting entity
deals with the reporting entity in relation to the provision of a designated
service through an agent of the customer; and
(b) the customer does so in
circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to the agent.
Special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(3) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 86(1)(c) may require that a special anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if:
(a) a customer of the reporting entity
deals with the reporting entity in relation to the provision of a designated
service through an agent of the customer; and
(b) the customer does so in
circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to the agent.
90 Applicable
customer identification procedures—customers other than individuals
Standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(1) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 84(3)(b) may require that Part B of a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if a
customer of the reporting entity is:
(a) a company; or
(b) a trust; or
(c) a partnership; or
(d) a corporation sole; or
(e) a body politic;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to a person who is:
(f) associated with the customer; and
(g) specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(2) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 85(3)(b) may require that Part B of a joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if a
customer of the reporting entity is:
(a) a company; or
(b) a trust; or
(c) a partnership; or
(d) a corporation sole; or
(e) a body politic;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to a person who is:
(f) associated with the customer; and
(g) specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(3) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 86(1)(c) may require that a special anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program must provide that, if a
customer of the reporting entity is:
(a) a company; or
(b) a trust; or
(c) a partnership; or
(d) a corporation sole; or
(e) a body politic;
one or more elements of the applicable customer
identification procedure for the customer must involve the taking of steps
specified in the AML/CTF Rules in relation to a person who is:
(f) associated with the customer; and
(g) specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
91
Applicable customer identification procedures—disclosure certificates
Standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(1) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 84(3)(b) may require that, if:
(a) a designated service is provided
to a customer specified in the AML/CTF Rules; or
(b) a designated service is provided
to a customer in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
Part B of a standard anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program must provide that one or more elements of the applicable
customer identification procedure for the customer must involve the reporting
entity obtaining a certificate, to be known as a disclosure certificate,
from:
(c) the customer; or
(d) person who is:
(i) associated with the
customer; and
(ii) specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(2) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 85(3)(b) may require that, if:
(a) a designated service is provided
to a customer specified in the AML/CTF Rules; or
(b) a designated service is provided
to a customer in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
Part B of a joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program must provide that one or more elements of the applicable
customer identification procedure for the customer must involve the reporting
entity obtaining a certificate, to be known as a disclosure certificate,
from:
(c) the customer; or
(d) person who is:
(i) associated with the
customer; and
(ii) specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program
(3) To avoid doubt, AML/CTF Rules made for
the purposes of paragraph 86(1)(c) may require that, if:
(a) a designated service is provided
to a customer specified in the AML/CTF Rules; or
(b) a designated service is provided
to a customer in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules;
a special anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program must provide that one or more elements of the applicable
customer identification procedure for the customer must involve the reporting
entity obtaining a certificate, to be known as a disclosure certificate,
from:
(c) the customer; or
(d) person who is:
(i) associated with the
customer; and
(ii) specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
Note: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Division 4—Other provisions
92
Request to obtain information from a customer
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) the reporting entity has adopted:
(i) a standard anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program; or
(ii) a joint anti‑money
laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program;
that applies to the reporting
entity; and
(b) the reporting entity is providing,
or has provided, a designated service to a particular customer; and
(c) the reporting entity has
reasonable grounds to believe that the customer has information that is likely
to assist the reporting entity to comply with:
(i) Part A of the program;
or
(ii) if the program has
been varied on one or more occasions—Part A of the program as varied.
Request to give information
(2) The reporting entity may, by written
notice given to the customer, request the customer to give the reporting
entity, within the period and in the manner specified in the notice, any such
information.
(3) The notice must set out the effect of
subsection (4).
Power to discontinue, restrict or limit provision of
designated services
(4) If the customer does not comply with the
request, the reporting entity may do any or all of following:
(a) refuse to continue to provide a
designated service to the customer;
(b) refuse to commence to provide a
designated service to the customer;
(c) restrict or limit the provision of
a designated service to the customer;
until the customer provides the information covered by the
request.
Protection from liability
(5) An action, suit or proceeding (whether
criminal or civil) does not lie against:
(a) the reporting entity; or
(b) an officer, employee or agent of
the reporting entity acting in the course of his or her office, employment or
agency;
in relation to anything done, or omitted to be done, in
good faith by the reporting entity, officer, employee or agent in the exercise,
or purported exercise, of the power conferred by subsection (4).
93
Exemptions
(1) Paragraphs 84(2)(a) and (b) and 85(2)(a)
and (b) do not apply to a designated service that is of a kind specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
(2) Paragraphs 84(2)(a) and (b) and 85(2)(a)
and (b) do not apply to a designated service that is provided in circumstances
specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Part 8—Correspondent banking
94
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• A financial institution
must not enter into a correspondent banking relationship with:
(a) a shell
bank; or
(b) another
financial institution that has a correspondent banking relationship with a
shell bank.
• Before a financial
institution enters into a correspondent banking relationship with another
financial institution, the financial institution must carry out a due diligence
assessment.
• If a financial institution
has entered into a correspondent banking relationship with another financial
institution, the financial institution must carry out regular due diligence
assessments.
95
Prohibition of entry into correspondent banking relationships with shell banks
etc.
(1) A financial institution must not enter
into a correspondent banking relationship with another person if the person
does so reckless as to whether:
(a) the other person is a shell bank;
or
(b) the other person is a financial
institution that has a correspondent banking relationship with a shell bank.
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
96
Termination of correspondent banking relationship with shell bank etc.
(1) If:
(a) a financial institution (the first
financial institution) is in a correspondent banking relationship with
another person; and
(b) the first financial institution
becomes aware that the other person is a shell bank;
the first financial institution must, within:
(c) 20 business days after becoming
aware as mentioned in paragraph (b); or
(d) such longer period (if any) as the
AUSTRAC CEO allows;
terminate the correspondent banking relationship.
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
(2) If:
(a) a financial institution (the first
financial institution) is in a correspondent banking relationship with
another financial institution; and
(b) the first financial institution
becomes aware that the other financial institution has a correspondent banking
relationship with a shell bank;
the first financial institution must, within:
(c) 20 business days after becoming
aware as mentioned in paragraph (b); or
(d) such longer period (if any) as the
AUSTRAC CEO allows;
either:
(e) terminate the correspondent
banking relationship mentioned in paragraph (a); or
(f) request the other financial
institution to terminate the correspondent banking relationship mentioned in
paragraph (b).
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
(3) If:
(a) a financial institution (the first
financial institution) makes a request under paragraph (2)(f) of
another financial institution; and
(b) at the end of the period of 20
business days after the request was made, the other financial institution has
not complied with the request;
the first financial institution must, within:
(c) 20 business days after the end of
the period mentioned in paragraph (b); or
(d) such longer period (if any) as the
AUSTRAC CEO allows;
terminate its correspondent banking relationship with the
other financial institution.
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsections (1), (2) and (3) are
civil penalty provisions.
97 Due
diligence assessments before entering into correspondent banking relationships
etc.
Preliminary risk assessment
(1) Before a financial institution (the first
financial institution) enters into a correspondent banking relationship
with another financial institution, the first financial institution must carry
out an assessment of the risk the first financial institution may reasonably
face that the correspondent banking relationship might (whether inadvertently
or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(a) money laundering; or
(b) financing of terrorism.
Due diligence assessment
(2) Before a financial institution (the first
financial institution) enters into a correspondent banking relationship
with another financial institution, the first financial institution must:
(a) carry out an assessment of such
matters as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) prepare a written record of the
assessment as soon as practicable after the completion of the assessment;
if carrying out the assessment is warranted by the risk
identified in the assessment carried out by the first financial institution
under subsection (1).
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) are civil
penalty provisions.
98
Regular due diligence assessments of correspondent banking relationships etc.
Preliminary risk assessment
(1) If a financial institution (the first
financial institution) has, whether before or after the commencement of
this section, entered into a correspondent banking relationship with another
financial institution, the first financial institution must carry out regular
assessments of the risk the first financial institution may reasonably face
that the correspondent banking relationship might (whether inadvertently or
otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(a) money laundering; or
(b) financing of terrorism.
Due diligence assessment
(2) If a financial institution (the first
financial institution) has, whether before or after the commencement of
this section, entered into a correspondent banking relationship with another
financial institution, the first financial institution must:
(a) carry out regular assessments of
such matters as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) prepare a written record of each
assessment as soon as practicable after the completion of the assessment;
if carrying out those assessments are warranted by the
risk identified in an assessment carried out by the first financial institution
under subsection (1).
Note: For geographical links, see section 100.
Frequency of assessments
(3) The first
assessment under subsection (1) must be carried out within:
(a) if the first financial institution
enters into the correspondent banking relationship after the commencement of
this section—the period:
(i) beginning at the time
when the first financial institution enters into the correspondent banking
relationship; and
(ii) ending at the end of
the period ascertained in accordance with the AML/CTF Rules; or
(b) otherwise—the period:
(i) beginning at the
commencement of this section; and
(ii) ending at the end of
the period ascertained in accordance with the AML/CTF Rules.
(4) The intervals between subsequent
assessments must not be longer than the period ascertained in accordance with
the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes of
subparagraph (3)(a)(ii) or (b)(ii) or subsection (4) may provide
that, for the purposes of the application of this Act to the first financial
institution, the first financial institution is required or permitted to
determine the period concerned, so long as the first financial institution has
regard to such matters as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(6) Subsection (5) does not limit
subparagraph (3)(a)(ii) or (b)(ii) or subsection (4).
Civil penalty
(7) Subsections (1) and (2) are civil
penalty provisions.
99
Other rules about correspondent banking relationships
(1) A financial institution must not enter
into a correspondent banking relationship with another person if a senior
officer of the financial institution has not approved the entering into of that
relationship, having regard to such matters (if any) as are specified in the
AML/CTF Rules.
(2) If a financial institution has a
correspondent banking relationship with another person, the financial
institution must document:
(a) its responsibilities under that
relationship; and
(b) the responsibilities of the other
person under that relationship.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) are civil
penalty provisions.
100
Geographical links
A financial institution is not subject
to a requirement under this Part in connection with a correspondent banking
relationship the financial institution has, or proposes to have, with another
person unless:
(a) the financial institution carries
on an activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of the
financial institution in Australia; or
(b) both:
(i) the financial
institution is a resident of Australia; and
(ii) the financial
institution carries on an activity or business at or through a permanent
establishment of the financial institution in a foreign country; or
(c) both:
(i) the financial
institution is a subsidiary of a company that is a resident of Australia; and
(ii) the financial
institution carries on an activity or business at or through a permanent
establishment of the financial institution in a foreign country.
Note: For resident, see
section 14.
Part 9—Countermeasures
101
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• The regulations may
prohibit or regulate the entering into of transactions with residents of
prescribed foreign countries.
102
Countermeasures
(1) The regulations may make provision for or
in relation to prohibiting or regulating the entering into of transactions,
where:
(a) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction is a resident of Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is a resident of a prescribed foreign country; or
(b) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction enters into the transaction in the course of carrying on an
activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of the party in Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is a resident of a prescribed foreign country; or
(c) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction is a resident of Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is a corporation incorporated in a prescribed foreign
country; or
(d) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction enters into the transaction in the course of carrying on an
activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of the party in Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is a corporation incorporated in a prescribed foreign
country; or
(e) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction is a resident of Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is an individual who is physically present in a
prescribed foreign country; or
(f) both:
(i) one of the parties to
the transaction enters into the transaction in the course of carrying on an
activity or business at or through a permanent establishment of the party in Australia; and
(ii) the other party, or
any of the other parties, is an individual who is physically present in a
prescribed foreign country.
Note: For resident, see
section 14.
(2) Regulations made for the purposes of
subsection (1):
(a) may be of general application; or
(b) may be limited by reference to any
or all of the following:
(i) a specified
transaction;
(ii) a specified party;
(iii) a specified prescribed
foreign country.
Note 1: For specification by class, see subsection
13(3) of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
Note 2: For consultation requirements, see
section 17 of the Legislative Instruments Act 2003.
103
Sunsetting of regulations after 2 years
Section 50 of the Legislative
Instruments Act 2003 has effect, in relation to regulations made for the
purposes of subsection 102(1), as if each reference in that section to tenth
anniversary were read as a reference to second anniversary.
Part 10—Record‑keeping requirements
Division 1—Introduction
104
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• The
AML/CTF Rules may provide that a reporting entity must make a record of a
designated service. The reporting entity must retain the record for 7 years.
• If
a customer of a reporting entity gives the reporting entity a document relating
to the provision of a designated service, the reporting entity must retain the
document for 7 years.
• A
reporting entity must retain a record of an applicable customer identification
procedure for 7 years after the end of the reporting entity’s relationship with
the relevant customer.
• A
reporting entity must retain a copy of its anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program.
105
Privacy Act not overridden by this Part
This Part does not override
Part IIIA of the Privacy Act 1988.
Division 2—Records of transactions etc.
106
Records of designated services
(1) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that, if a
reporting entity commences to provide, or provides, a specified kind of
designated service to a customer, the reporting entity must make a record of
information relating to the provision of the service.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that, if a
reporting entity commences to provide, or provides, a designated service to a
customer in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules, the reporting entity
must make a record of information relating to the provision of the service.
(3) A record under subsection (1) or (2)
must comply with such requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF
Rules.
(4) A reporting entity must comply with
AML/CTF Rules made for the purposes of this section.
Civil penalty
(5) Subsection (4) is a civil penalty
provision.
Designated business groups
(6) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (4) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
107
Transaction records to be retained
Scope
(1) This
section applies if:
(a) a reporting entity makes a record
of information relating to the provision of a designated service to a customer;
and
(b) the record is not declared by the
AML/CTF Rules to be exempt from this section.
Retention
(2) The reporting entity must retain:
(a) the record; or
(b) a copy of the record; or
(c) an extract from the record showing
the prescribed information;
for 7 years after the making of the record.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Designated business groups
(4) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
108
Customer‑provided transaction documents to be retained
Scope
(1) This section applies if:
(a) a document relating to the
provision, or prospective provision, of a designated service by a reporting entity
is given to the reporting entity by or on behalf of the customer concerned; and
(b) the reporting entity commences, or
has commenced, to provide the service to the customer.
(2) The reporting entity must retain:
(a) the document; or
(b) a copy of the document;
for 7 years after the giving of the document.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Designated business groups
(4) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
109
Records relating to transferred ADI accounts
Scope
(1) This section applies if:
(a) a document is in the possession of
an ADI (the transferor ADI) in fulfilment of an obligation
imposed on it by section 107 or 108; and
(b) the document relates to an active
account that has been, or is proposed to be, transferred to another ADI (the transferee
ADI) under:
(i) a law of the
Commonwealth or of a State or Territory; or
(ii) an arrangement between
the transferor ADI and the transferee ADI.
Transferor ADI must give document to the transferee ADI
(2) The transferor ADI must give the document
to the transferee ADI within the 120‑day period beginning 30 days before the
transfer of the account.
Transferor ADI released from retention obligations
(3) Sections 107 and 108 do not apply to
the transferor ADI, in relation to the document, if the transferor ADI gave the
original or a copy of the document to the transferee ADI within the 120‑day
period beginning 30 days before the transfer of the account.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
Retention obligations of transferee ADI
(4) If the transferee ADI is given the
document within the 120‑day period beginning 30 days before the transfer of the
account, the transferee ADI must retain:
(a) the document; or
(b) a copy of the document;
for 7 years after the giving of the document.
Civil penalty
(5) Subsections (2) and (4) are civil
penalty provisions.
110
Retention of records relating to closed ADI accounts
Transferor ADI may give documents to transferee ADI
(1) An ADI (the transferor ADI)
may give the original and copies of a document (the second document)
relating to an account to another ADI (the transferee ADI) if:
(a) the transferor ADI has given
another document (the first document) relating to the same
account to the transferee ADI in accordance with section 109; and
(b) the second document is in the
transferor ADI’s possession in fulfilment of an obligation imposed on it by
section 107 or 108; and
(c) the second document relates to a
closed account; and
(d) the transferor ADI and the
transferee ADI agree in writing that the second document should be given by the
transferor ADI to the transferee ADI within the 120‑day period allowed by
section 109 for the giving of the first document.
Transferor ADI released from retention obligations
(2) Sections 107 and 108 do not apply to
the transferor ADI, in relation to the second document, if the transferor ADI
gave the original or a copy of the second document to the transferee ADI within
the 120‑day period allowed by section 109 for the giving of the first
document.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
Retention obligations of transferee ADI
(3) If the transferee ADI is given the
original or a copy of the second document within the 120‑day period allowed by
section 109 for the giving of the first document, the transferee ADI must
retain:
(a) the second document; or
(b) a copy of the second document;
for 7 years after the giving of the second document.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (3) is a civil penalty
provision.
Division 3—Records of identification procedures
111
Copying documents obtained in the course of carrying out an applicable custom
identification procedure
For the purposes of this Act, if:
(a) a document is produced to a
reporting entity in the course of an applicable customer identification
procedure carried out under this Act; and
(b) the reporting entity makes a copy
of the document;
the reporting entity is taken to have made a record of the
information contained in the document.
112
Making of records of identification procedures
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if the reporting entity carries out an applicable customer
identification procedure in respect of a particular customer to whom the
reporting entity provided, or proposed to provide, a designated service.
Records
(2) The reporting entity must make a record
of:
(a) the procedure; and
(b) information obtained in the course
of carrying out the procedure; and
(c) such other information (if any)
about the procedure as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) A record under subsection (2) must
comply with such requirements (if any) as are specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Civil penalty
(4) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Designated business groups
(5) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
113
Retention of records of identification procedures
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if:
(a) the reporting entity carried out
an applicable customer identification procedure in respect of a particular
customer to whom the reporting entity provided, or proposed to provide, a
designated service; and
(b) the reporting entity made a record
of:
(i) the procedure; or
(ii) information obtained
in the course of carrying out the procedure; or
(iii) such other information
(if any) about the procedure as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
Retention
(2) The reporting entity must retain the
record, or a copy of the record, until the end of the first 7‑year period:
(a) that began at a time after the
procedure was carried out; and
(b) throughout the whole of which the
reporting entity did not provide any designated services to the customer.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Designated business groups
(4) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2) may be discharged by any other member of the group.
114
Records of identification procedures deemed to have been carried out by a
reporting entity
Scope
(1) This section applies if:
(a) on a particular day (the customer
identification day), a reporting entity (the first reporting
entity) carried out the applicable customer identification procedure in
respect of a particular customer to whom the reporting entity provided, or
proposed to provide, a designated service; and
(b) under section 38, Part 2
has effect as if the applicable customer identification procedure had also been
carried out in respect of the customer by another reporting entity (the second
reporting entity); and
(c) the first reporting entity made a
record of:
(i) the procedure; or
(ii) information obtained
in the course of carrying out the procedure; or
(iii) such other information
(if any) about the procedure as is specified in the AML/CTF Rules; and
(d) the record is not declared by the
AML/CTF Rules to be exempt from this section.
Copy of record to be given to second reporting entity
(2) If:
(a) on the customer identification
day, the customer is a customer to whom the second reporting entity provides,
or proposes to provide, a designated service; and
(b) the second reporting entity does
not already have a copy of the record;
the second reporting entity must, by written notice given
to the first reporting entity within 5 business days after that day, request
the first reporting entity to give the second reporting entity a copy of the
record within 5 business days after the request is given.
(3) If:
(a) on a day later than the customer
identification day, the customer becomes a customer to whom the second
reporting entity provides, or proposes to provide, a designated service; and
(b) the second reporting entity does
not already have a copy of the record;
the second reporting entity must, by written notice given
to the first reporting entity within 5 business days after that later day,
request the first reporting entity to give the second reporting entity a copy
of the of the record within 5 business days after the request is given.
(4) The first reporting entity must comply
with a request under whichever of subsections (2) and (3) is applicable.
Retention of copy by second reporting entity
(5) If the first reporting entity gives a
copy of the record to the second reporting entity, the second reporting entity
must retain the copy until the end of the first 7‑year period:
(a) that began at a time after the
applicable customer identification procedure was carried out; and
(b) throughout the whole of which the
second reporting entity did not provide any designated services to the
customer.
Civil penalty
(6) Subsections (2), (3), (4) and (5)
are civil penalty provisions.
Designated business groups
(7) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
an obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2), (3), (4) or (5) may be discharged by any other member of
the group.
Division 4—Records about electronic funds transfer instructions
115
Retention of records about electronic funds transfer instructions
Scope
(1) This section applies if:
(a) section 64 applies to:
(i) a multiple‑institution
person‑to‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; or
(ii) a multiple‑institution
same‑person electronic funds transfer instruction; and
(b) a person is in the funds transfer
chain; and
(c) the person is an interposed person
and the transfer instruction is to be passed on by the person at or through a
permanent establishment of the person in Australia; and
(d) the making available by the
beneficiary institution of the transferred money would take place at or through
a permanent establishment of the beneficiary institution in Australia; and
(e) some or all of the required
transfer information was passed on to the person by another person in the funds
transfer chain; and
(f) the transfer instruction was
accepted by the ordering institution at or through a permanent establishment of
the ordering institution in a foreign country; and
(g) the transfer instruction was
passed on to the person by a permanent establishment of the ordering
institution, or of another person, in a foreign country.
Keeping and retention of records
(2) The person must:
(a) make a record of so much of the
required transfer information as was passed on to the person as mentioned in paragraph (1)(e);
and
(b) retain that record, or a copy of
the record, for 7 years after the transfer instruction was passed on to the
person.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Division 5—Records about anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing programs
116
Records about anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing programs
Scope
(1) This section applies to a reporting
entity if the reporting entity adopts an anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism
financing program that applies to the reporting entity.
Record of adoption
(2) The reporting entity must:
(a) make a record of the adoption; and
(b) retain the record, or a copy of
the record, throughout the period:
(i) beginning at the
completion of the preparation of the record; and
(ii) ending 7 years after
the day on which the adoption ceases to be in force.
Retention of program etc.
(3) The reporting entity must retain the
program, or a copy of the program, throughout the period:
(a) beginning at the time of the
adoption; and
(b) ending 7 years after the day on
which the adoption ceases to be in force.
(4) If the program is varied while the
adoption is in force, the reporting entity must retain the variation, or a copy
of the variation, throughout the period:
(a) beginning at the time of the
variation; and
(b) ending 7 years after the day on
which the adoption ceases to be in force.
Civil penalty
(5) Subsections (2), (3) and (4) are
civil penalty provisions.
Designated business groups
(6) If:
(a) a reporting entity is a member of
a designated business group; and
(b) such other conditions (if any) as
are specified in the AML/CTF Rules are satisfied;
the obligation imposed on the reporting entity by
subsection (2), (3) or (4) may be discharged by any other member of the
group.
Division 6—Records about due diligence assessments of correspondent
banking relationships
117
Retention of records of due diligence assessments of correspondent banking
relationships
Scope
(1) This section applies to a financial
institution if the financial institution prepared a record under subsection
97(2) or 98(2).
Retention
(2) The financial institution must retain the
record, or a copy of the record, for 7 years after the completion of the
preparation of the record.
Civil penalty
(3) Subsection (2) is a civil penalty
provision.
Division 7—General provisions
118
Exemptions
(1) This Part (other than sections 109,
110, 115, 116 and 117) does not apply to a designated service that is of a kind
specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Part (other than sections 109, 110, 115, 116
and 117) does not apply to a designated service that is of a kind specified in
the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) This Part (other than sections 109,
110, 115, 116 and 117) does not apply to a designated service that is provided
in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Part (other than sections 109, 110, 115, 116 and
117) does not apply to a designated service that is provided in circumstances
specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) This Part (other than sections 109,
110, 115, 116 and 117) does not apply to a designated service that is provided
by a reporting entity at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting
entity in a foreign country.
119
This Part does not limit any other obligations
This Part does not limit any other
obligation of a person to make records or retain documents.
Part 11—Secrecy and access
Division 1—Introduction
120
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• Except as permitted by this
Act, an AUSTRAC official must not disclose information or documents obtained
under this Act.
• A reporting entity must not
disclose that it has:
(a) reported, or
is required to report, information to the AUSTRAC CEO under section 41; or
(b) formed a
suspicion, under section 41, about a transaction or matter.
• The Australian Taxation
Office and certain other Australian government bodies may access AUSTRAC
information.
Division 2—Secrecy
121
Secrecy—AUSTRAC information and AUSTRAC documents
(1) This section restricts what a person (the
entrusted public official) who is or was:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(b) a member of the staff of AUSTRAC;
or
(c) a person engaged as a consultant
under subsection 225(1); or
(d) a person whose services are made
available to the AUSTRAC CEO under subsection 225(3); or
(e) the Director of AUSTRAC; or
(f) a person engaged as a consultant
under repealed section 40A of the Financial Transaction Reports Act
1988;
may do with AUSTRAC information or documents containing
AUSTRAC information.
(2) The entrusted public official commits an
offence if:
(a) the official has obtained AUSTRAC
information (otherwise than under section 49 or Division 4); and
(b) the official discloses the
information to another person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(3) Each of the following is an exception to
the prohibition in subsection (2):
(a) the disclosure is for the purposes
of this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988;
(b) the disclosure is for the purposes
of the performance of the functions of the AUSTRAC CEO;
(c) the disclosure is otherwise in
connection with the performance of the entrusted public official’s duties under
this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988;
(d) the disclosure is in connection
with giving another person covered by paragraph (1)(a), (b), (c) or (d)
access to information for the purposes of, or in connection with:
(i) the performance of the
functions of the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(ii) the performance of the
other person’s duties under this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports
Act 1988;
(e) the disclosure is in connection with
giving access to AUSTRAC information in accordance with Division 4.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to a matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(4) Except where it is necessary to do so for
the purposes of giving effect to this Act or the Financial Transaction
Reports Act 1988, the entrusted public official is not to be required:
(a) to produce to a court or tribunal
a document containing AUSTRAC information; or
(b) to disclose AUSTRAC information to
a court or tribunal.
(5) To avoid doubt, paragraph (2)(a)
applies to AUSTRAC information obtained under subsection (3).
122
Secrecy—information obtained under section 49
(1) This section restricts what a person (the
entrusted investigating official) who is or was:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(b) a member of the staff of AUSTRAC;
or
(c) a person engaged as a consultant
under subsection 225(1); or
(d) a person whose services are made
available to the AUSTRAC CEO under subsection 225(3); or
(e) the Commissioner of the Australian
Federal Police; or
(f) the Chief Executive Officer of
the Australian Crime Commission; or
(g) the Commissioner of Taxation; or
(h) the Chief Executive Officer of
Customs; or
(i) the Integrity Commissioner; or
(j) an investigating officer;
may do with section 49 information.
(2) The entrusted investigating official
commits an offence if:
(a) the official has obtained
section 49 information; and
(b) the official discloses the
information to another person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(3) Each of the following is an exception to
the prohibition in subsection (2):
(a) the disclosure is for the purposes
of this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988;
(b) the disclosure is for the purposes
of the performance of the functions of the AUSTRAC CEO;
(c) the disclosure is otherwise in
connection with the performance of the entrusted investigating official’s
duties under this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988;
(d) if the entrusted investigating
official is covered by paragraph (1)(a), (b), (c) or (d)—the disclosure is
in connection with giving another person covered by paragraph (1)(a), (b),
(c) or (d) access to information for the purposes of, or in connection with:
(i) the performance of the
functions of the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(ii) the performance of the
other person’s duties under this Act or the Financial Transaction Reports
Act 1988;
(e) if the entrusted investigating
official is the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police—the disclosure is
in connection with giving an AFP member access to information for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the AFP member’s duties;
(f) if the entrusted investigating
official is the Chief Executive Officer of the Australian Crime Commission—the
disclosure is in connection with giving:
(i) an examiner of the
Australian Crime Commission; or
(ii) a member of the staff
of the Australian Crime Commission;
access to information for the
purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of the examiner’s duties or
the member’s duties, as the case may be;
(g) if the entrusted investigating
official is the Commissioner of Taxation—the disclosure is in connection with
giving a taxation officer access to information for the purposes of, or in
connection with, the performance of the taxation officer’s duties;
(h) if the entrusted investigating
official is the Chief Executive Officer of Customs—the disclosure is in
connection with giving a customs officer access to information for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the customs officer’s duties;
(i) if the entrusted investigating
official is the Integrity Commissioner—the disclosure is in connection with
giving an Australian Commission for Law Enforcement Integrity officer access to
information for the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of the
Australian Commission for Law Enforcement Integrity officer’s duties;
(j) the disclosure is in connection
with giving another entrusted investigating official access to information for
the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of the other official’s
duties.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(4) Except where it is necessary to do so for
the purposes of giving effect to this Act or the Financial Transaction
Reports Act 1988, the entrusted investigating official is not to be
required:
(a) to produce to a court or tribunal
a document containing section 49 information; or
(b) to disclose section 49
information to a court or tribunal.
(5) Section 49 information
is information obtained by the entrusted investigating official:
(a) under section 49; or
(b) under subsection (3).
Division 3—Disclosure of information
123
Offence of tipping off
Prohibitions
(1) If:
(a) a suspicious matter reporting
obligation arises or has arisen for a reporting entity in relation to a person;
and
(b) the reporting entity has
communicated information to the AUSTRAC CEO under subsection 41(2);
the reporting entity must not disclose to someone other
than the AUSTRAC CEO or a member of the staff of AUSTRAC that the information
has been communicated to the AUSTRAC CEO.
Note 1: For suspicious matter reporting
obligation, see section 41.
Note 2: This subsection deals with the disclosure of
information. It does not deal with the carrying out of applicable customer
identification procedures.
(2) If:
(a) a suspicious matter reporting
obligation arises or has arisen for a reporting entity in relation to a person;
and
(b) either:
(i) the reporting entity
has formed the applicable suspicion mentioned in subsection 41(1); or
(ii) the reporting entity
has communicated information to the AUSTRAC CEO under subsection 41(2);
then:
(c) if subparagraph (b)(i)
applies—the reporting entity must not disclose to someone other than the
AUSTRAC CEO or a member of the staff of AUSTRAC:
(i) that the reporting
entity has formed the applicable suspicion mentioned in subsection 41(1); or
(ii) any other information
from which the person to whom the information is disclosed could reasonably be
expected to infer that the suspicion had been formed; and
(d) if subparagraph (b)(ii)
applies—the reporting entity must not disclose to a person other than the
AUSTRAC CEO or a member of the staff of AUSTRAC any other information from
which the person to whom the information is disclosed could reasonably be
expected to infer that information had been communicated to the AUSTRAC CEO
under subsection 41(2).
Note 1: For suspicious matter reporting
obligation, see section 41.
Note 2: This subsection deals with the disclosure of
information. It does not deal with the carrying out of applicable customer
identification procedures.
(3) If a reporting entity is required under
subsection 49(1) to give information, or produce a document, to a person, the
reporting entity must not disclose to anyone else:
(a) that the reporting entity is or
has been required to do so; or
(b) that the information has been
given or the document has been produced; or
(c) any other information from which
the person to whom the information is disclosed could reasonably be expected to
infer that:
(i) the reporting entity
had been required to give the first‑mentioned information or produce the
document; or
(ii) the first‑mentioned
information had been given; or
(iii) the document had been
produced.
Exceptions
(4) Subsection (2) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if:
(a) the reporting entity is:
(i) a legal practitioner
(however described); or
(ii) a partnership or
company that carries on a business of using legal practitioners (however
described) to supply professional legal services; or
(iii) a qualified
accountant; or
(iv) a partnership or
company that carries on a business of using qualified accountants to supply
professional accountancy services; or
(v) a person specified in
the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) the information relates to the
affairs of a customer of the reporting entity; and
(c) the disclosure is made for the
purposes of dissuading the customer from engaging in conduct that constitutes,
or could constitute:
(i) evasion of a taxation
law; or
(ii) evasion of a law of a
State or Territory that deals with taxation; or
(iii) an offence against a
law of the Commonwealth or of a State or Territory.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (4) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(5) Subsection (2) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if the disclosure is to a legal
practitioner (however described) for the purpose of obtaining legal advice.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (5) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(5A) A person to whom information has been
disclosed under subsection (5) must not disclose the information to
another person.
(6) Subsection (2) does not apply to the
disclosure of information about the operation of Part 4 of the Charter
of the United Nations Act 1945.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (6) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(7) Subsection (2) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if:
(a) the reporting entity belongs to a
designated business group; and
(b) the reporting entity has adopted a
joint anti‑money laundering and counter‑terrorism financing program that:
(i) applies to the
reporting entity; and
(ii) relates to the
designated business group; and
(c) the information relates to the
affairs of a customer of the reporting entity; and
(d) the disclosure is made to another
reporting entity that belongs to the designated business group; and
(e) the disclosure is made for the
purpose of informing the other reporting entity about the risks involved in
dealing with the customer.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (7) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(8) Subsection (2)
does not apply to the disclosure of information by a reporting entity if:
(a) the
reporting entity is an ADI; and
(b) the disclosure is to an owner‑managed
branch of the ADI.
(8A) A person to whom information has been disclosed
under subsection (8) must not disclose the information to another person.
(9) Subsection (2) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if:
(a) the disclosure is in compliance
with a requirement under a law of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(b) the disclosure is to an Australian
government body that has responsibility for law enforcement.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (9) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(10) Except where it is necessary to do so for
the purposes of giving effect to this Act or the Financial Transaction
Reports Act 1988, a reporting entity is not to be required to disclose to a
court or tribunal information mentioned in subsection (1), (2) or (3).
Offence
(11) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1), (2), (3), (5A) or (8A); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty for contravention of this subsection: Imprisonment for
2 years or 120 penalty units, or both.
124
Report and information not admissible
(1) In any
court or tribunal proceedings:
(a) none of the following is
admissible in evidence:
(i) a report given under,
or prepared for the purposes of, subsection 41(2);
(ii) a copy of such a
report;
(iii) a document purporting
to set out information (including the formation or existence of a suspicion)
contained in such a report;
(iv) a document given or
produced under subsection 49(1), in so far as that subsection relates to a
communication under section 41; and
(b) evidence is not admissible as to:
(i) whether or not a
report was prepared for the purposes of subsection 41(2); or
(ii) whether or not a
report prepared for the purposes of subsection 41(2), or a document purporting
to set out information (including the formation or existence of a suspicion)
contained in such a report, was given to, or received by, the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(iii) whether or not
particular information (including the formation or existence of a suspicion)
was contained in a report prepared for the purposes of subsection 41(2); or
(iv) whether or not
particular information (including the formation or existence of a suspicion) was
given under subsection 49(1), in so far as that subsection relates to a
communication under section 41; or
(v) whether or not a
particular document was produced under subsection 49(1), in so far as that
subsection relates to a communication under section 41.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the
following proceedings:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against section 123, 136 or 137;
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of subsection 41(2) or 49(2).
Division 4—Access to AUSTRAC information by agencies
Subdivision A—Access by the ATO to AUSTRAC information
125
Access by the ATO to AUSTRAC information
(1) The Commissioner of Taxation and any
taxation officer is entitled to access to AUSTRAC information for any purpose
relating to the facilitation of the administration or enforcement of a taxation
law.
(2) An official of a designated agency may
disclose AUSTRAC information to:
(a) the Commissioner of Taxation; or
(b) a taxation officer.
Application of Division 355 in Schedule 1 to
the Taxation Administration Act 1953
(3) Division 355 in Schedule 1 to
the Taxation Administration Act 1953 applies in relation to AUSTRAC
information obtained by the Commissioner of Taxation or a taxation officer
under subsection (1) or (2) of this section as if a reference in that
Division to a taxation law included a reference to this Act or the Financial
Transaction Reports Act 1988.
Note: Division 355 in Schedule 1 to the Taxation
Administration Act 1953 deals with confidentiality of taxation information.
(4) Division 355 in Schedule 1 to
the Taxation Administration Act 1953 does not apply to the disclosure by
the Commissioner of Taxation or a taxation officer of AUSTRAC information to an
official of a designated agency for the purposes of, or in connection with, the
performance of the official’s duties in relation to the designated agency, so
long as the official holds an appropriate authorisation under subsection
126(1).
Subdivision B—Access by designated agencies to AUSTRAC information
126
Access by designated agencies to AUSTRAC information
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, in writing,
authorise specified officials, or a specified class of officials, of a
specified designated agency to have access to AUSTRAC information for the
purposes of performing the agency’s functions and exercising the agency’s
powers.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) An authorisation under
subsection (1) is not a legislative instrument.
Limitations on AUSTRAC’s power to authorise access by State or Territory agencies
(3) Despite subsection (1), the AUSTRAC
CEO may specify a designated agency mentioned in any of paragraphs (p) to
(x) of the definition of designated agency in section 5 only
if the designated agency undertakes that it and its officials will comply with
the Information Privacy Principles set out in section 14 of the Privacy
Act 1988 in respect of AUSTRAC information obtained under:
(a) the authorisation; or
(b) subsection 128(2).
AUSTRAC information, or class of AUSTRAC information,
to which access is authorised
(4) An authorisation under
subsection (1) must state the AUSTRAC information, or the class of AUSTRAC
information, to which the officials of the designated agency are to have
access.
Treasury Department
(5) This Subdivision does not apply to a
function or power of the Treasury Department unless the function or power
relates to the Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Act 1975 or
regulations under that Act.
(6) This Subdivision does not apply in relation
to the duties of an official of the Treasury Department unless those duties
relate to the Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Act 1975 or regulations
under that Act.
127
Dealings with AUSTRAC information once accessed
(1) This section restricts what a person (the
entrusted agency official) who is or was an official of a
designated agency may do with accessed information.
(2) The entrusted agency official commits an
offence if:
(a) the official has obtained accessed
information; and
(b) the official discloses the
information to another person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(3) Each of the following is an exception to
the prohibition in subsection (2):
(a) the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the official’s duties;
(b) the disclosure is authorised by,
or is in connection with communicating AUSTRAC information under, subsection
125(2) or section 128, 132, 133, 133A, 133B or 133C.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to a matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(4) Accessed information is
AUSTRAC information obtained by the entrusted agency official under any of the
following provisions:
(a) subsection 125(4);
(b) section 126;
(c) subsection 128(1) or (2);
(d) subsection 132(2), (4), (5) or
(7);
(e) subsection 133(2) or 133A(2);
(f) section 133B or 133C.
128
When AUSTRAC information can be passed on by an official of a designated agency
Other officials of the same agency
(1) An official of a designated agency may
disclose AUSTRAC information to another official of the agency for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the other official’s duties in
relation to the agency.
Officials of another designated agency
(2) An official of a designated agency may
disclose AUSTRAC information to another official of another designated agency
for the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of the other
official’s duties in relation to the other designated agency, so long as the
other official holds an appropriate authorisation under subsection 126(1).
Note: For disclosure to the Commissioner of Taxation
and taxation officers, see subsection 125(2).
Court or tribunal proceedings etc.
(3) An official of a designated agency may:
(a) disclose AUSTRAC information to a
person for the purposes of, or in connection with:
(i) court or tribunal
proceedings; or
(ii) proposed or possible
court or tribunal proceedings; or
(iii) obtaining legal
advice; or
(b) disclose AUSTRAC information in
the course of court or tribunal proceedings.
(4) Subsection (3) does not apply to
AUSTRAC information that:
(a) was obtained under
section 41; or
(b) was obtained under
section 49, in so far as that section relates to a communication under
section 41; or
(c) was obtained under section 16
of the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988.
(5) A person to whom AUSTRAC information has
been disclosed under paragraph (3)(a) must not disclose the information to
another person.
(6) Subsection (5) does not apply if:
(a) the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with:
(i) the court or tribunal
proceedings; or
(ii) the proposed or
possible court or tribunal proceedings; or
(iii) obtaining or giving
the legal advice;
as the case may be; or
(b) the disclosure is authorised by
this Division.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (6) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(7) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (5); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the
person’s conduct breaches the requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
Investigations
(8) An official of a designated agency may
disclose AUSTRAC information to a person for the purposes of, or in connection
with, an investigation or a proposed or possible investigation.
(9) Subsection (8) does not apply to
AUSTRAC information that:
(a) was obtained under
section 41; or
(b) was obtained under
section 49, in so far as that section relates to a communication under
section 41; or
(c) was obtained under section 16
of the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988.
(10) A person to whom AUSTRAC information has
been disclosed under subsection (8) must not disclose the information to
another person.
(11) Subsection (10) does not apply if the
disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with:
(a) the investigation or the proposed
or possible investigation; or
(b) court or tribunal proceedings, or
any proposed or possible court or tribunal proceedings, connected with the
investigation or proposed or possible investigation.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (11) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(12) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (10); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
ASIS officials
(12A) The following provisions have effect:
(a) an ASIS official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to an IGIS official for the purposes of, or in connection
with, the performance of the IGIS official’s duties in relation to ASIS or
employees of ASIS;
(b) an ASIS official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to the ASIS Minister if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the ASIS Minister’s responsibilities
in relation to ASIS;
(c) an ASIS official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to a Minister who, under section 9A of the Intelligence
Services Act 2001, is empowered to issue an authorisation in relation to
ASIS, if the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the
exercise of that power.
(12B) Subsection (12A) does not limit the
generality of any other provision of this section.
ASIO officials
(13) The following provisions have effect:
(a) an ASIO official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to an IGIS official for the purposes of, or in connection
with, the performance of the IGIS official’s duties in relation to ASIO or
employees of ASIO;
(b) an ASIO official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to the ASIO Minister if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with:
(i) the performance of the
ASIO Minister’s functions under the Australian Security Intelligence
Organisation Act 1979; or
(ii) security (within the
meaning of that Act);
(c) an ASIO official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to the Minister responsible for the administration of the Telecommunications
(Interception and Access) Act 1979 if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of that Minister’s functions under
that Act;
(d) an ASIO official may disclose
AUSTRAC information to a Minister who, under section 9A of the Intelligence
Services Act 2001, is empowered to issue an authorisation in relation to
ASIS, if the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the
exercise of that power.
(13A) Subsection (13) does not limit the
generality of any other provision of this section.
Defence intelligence officials
(13B) The following provisions have effect:
(a) an official of a defence
intelligence agency may disclose AUSTRAC information to an IGIS official for
the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of the IGIS official’s
duties in relation to the defence intelligence agency or employees of the
defence intelligence agency;
(b) an official of a defence
intelligence agency may disclose AUSTRAC information to the Defence Minister if
the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance
of the Defence Minister’s responsibilities in relation to the defence
intelligence agency;
(c) an official of a defence
intelligence agency may disclose AUSTRAC information to the Minister
responsible for the administration of the Telecommunications (Interception
and Access) Act 1979 if the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in
connection with, the performance of that Minister’s functions under that Act;
(d) an official of DIGO or DSD may
disclose AUSTRAC information to a Minister who, under section 9A of the Intelligence
Services Act 2001, is empowered to issue an authorisation to DIGO or DSD,
if the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the exercise
of that power.
ONA officials
(13C) The following provisions have effect:
(a) an official of ONA may disclose
AUSTRAC information to an IGIS official for the purposes of, or in connection
with, the performance of the IGIS official’s duties in relation to ONA or
employees of ONA;
(b) an official of ONA may disclose
AUSTRAC information to the Minister responsible for the administration of the Telecommunications
(Interception and Access) Act 1979 if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of that Minister’s functions under
that Act;
(c) an official of ONA may disclose
AUSTRAC information to the Prime Minister if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the Prime Minister’s
responsibilities in relation to ONA.
(13D) Subsections (13B) and (13C) do not
limit the generality of any other provision of this section.
Australian Crime Commission officials
(14) The following provisions have effect:
(a) the Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission may, in a manner that does not identify, and is not
reasonably capable of being used to identify, a person to whom AUSTRAC
information relates, communicate the information to the Board of the Australian
Crime Commission;
(b) the Chair of the Board of the
Australian Crime Commission may, in a manner that does not identify, and is not
reasonably capable of being used to identify, a person to whom AUSTRAC
information relates, communicate the information to the Inter‑Governmental
Committee in a report by the Chair under subsection 59(4) of the Australian
Crime Commission Act 2002;
(c) the Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission may, in a manner that does not identify, and is not
reasonably capable of being used to identify, a person to whom AUSTRAC
information relates, communicate the information to the Parliamentary Joint
Committee on Law Enforcement under subsection 8(1) of the Parliamentary
Joint Committee on Law Enforcement Act 2010;
(d) the Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission may communicate AUSTRAC information to an examiner
of the Australian Crime Commission who is conducting an examination under
Division 2 of Part II of the Australian Crime Commission Act 2002;
(e) an examiner of the Australian
Crime Commission may disclose AUSTRAC information in the course of such an
examination before the examiner;
(f) a member of the staff of the
Australian Crime Commission may disclose AUSTRAC information for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the staff member’s duties in
relation to the Australian Crime Commission.
(14A) Subsection (14) does not limit the
generality of any other provision of this section.
Disclosure to responsible Ministers
(15) If a designated agency is established by
law of the Commonwealth, an official of the agency may disclose AUSTRAC
information to the Minister responsible for the administration of so much of
that law as relates to the agency if the disclosure is for the purposes of, or
in connection with, the performance of the Minister’s responsibilities in
relation to the agency.
(16) If a designated agency is a Department of
the Commonwealth, an official of the agency may disclose AUSTRAC information to
the Minister responsible for the agency if the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the Minister’s responsibilities
in relation to the agency.
(17) If a designated agency is established by
law of a State or Territory, an official of the agency may disclose AUSTRAC
information to the State or Territory Minister responsible for the
administration of so much of that law as relates to the agency if the
disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance of
the State or Territory Minister’s responsibilities in relation to the agency.
(18) If a designated agency is a Department of
a State or Territory, an official of the agency may disclose AUSTRAC
information to the State or Territory Minister responsible for the agency if
the disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the performance
of the State or Territory Minister’s responsibilities in relation to the
agency.
IGIS officials
(19) An IGIS official may:
(a) disclose AUSTRAC information to
another IGIS official for the purposes of, or in connection with, the
performance of that official’s duties in relation to the following designated
agencies, or employees of the following designated agencies:
(i) ASIO;
(ii) ASIS;
(iii) a defence intelligence
agency;
(iv) ONA;
(v) any other Commonwealth
agency (within the meaning of the Inspector‑General of Intelligence and
Security Act 1986); or
(b) disclose AUSTRAC information by
means of including the information in a draft report, or a report, under
Division 4 of the Inspector‑General of Intelligence and Security Act
1986; or
(c) disclose AUSTRAC information under
section 23 of the Inspector‑General of Intelligence and Security Act
1986; or
(h) disclose AUSTRAC information in a
notice under section 12 of the Inspector‑General of Intelligence and
Security Act 1986.
(20) Subsection (19) does not limit the
generality of any other provision of this section.
Subdivision C—Access by non‑designated Commonwealth agencies to
AUSTRAC information
129
Access by non‑designated Commonwealth agencies to AUSTRAC information
(1) If an official of a non‑designated Commonwealth agency makes an application to the AUSTRAC CEO for access to AUSTRAC information
for the purposes of:
(a) an investigation of a possible
breach of a law of the Commonwealth; or
(b) a proposed investigation of a
possible breach of a law of the Commonwealth;
the AUSTRAC CEO may, in writing, authorise the official to
have access to AUSTRAC information for those purposes.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) An authorisation under
subsection (1) is not a legislative instrument.
AUSTRAC information, or class of AUSTRAC information,
to which access is authorised
(3) An authorisation under
subsection (1) must state the AUSTRAC information, or the class of AUSTRAC
information, to which the official of the non‑designated Commonwealth agency is
to have access.
130
Dealings with AUSTRAC information once accessed
(1) This section restricts what a person (the
entrusted Commonwealth agency official) who is or was an official
of a non‑designated Commonwealth agency may do with accessed information.
(2) The entrusted Commonwealth agency
official commits an offence if:
(a) the official has obtained accessed
information; and
(b) the official discloses the
information to another person.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(3) Each of the following is an exception to
the prohibition in subsection (2):
(a) the disclosure is for the purposes
of, or in connection with, the performance of the official’s duties in
connection with the investigation or proposed investigation concerned;
(b) the disclosure is in connection
with communicating AUSTRAC information under section 131.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to a matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(3A) Paragraph (3)(a) does not apply to
AUSTRAC information that:
(a) was obtained under
section 41; or
(b) was obtained under
section 49, in so far as that section relates to a communication under
section 41; or
(c) was obtained under section 16
of the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988.
(4) Accessed information is AUSTRAC
information obtained by the entrusted Commonwealth agency official under
subsection 129(1) or 131(2).
131
When AUSTRAC information can be passed on by an official of a non‑designated Commonwealth agency
Scope
(1) This section applies if AUSTRAC information
is disclosed to an official of a non‑designated Commonwealth agency for the
purposes of an investigation or proposed investigation.
Disclosure to other officials of the same agency
(2) The official may disclose the AUSTRAC
information to another official of the agency for the purposes of, or in
connection with, the performance of the other official’s duties in relation to
the investigation or proposed investigation.
Disclosure for the purposes of court or tribunal
proceedings
(3) The official may disclose the AUSTRAC
information to a person for the purposes of, or in connection with, court or
tribunal proceedings, or proposed or possible court or tribunal proceedings,
connected with the investigation or proposed investigation.
(3A) Subsection (3) does not apply to
AUSTRAC information that:
(a) was obtained under
section 41; or
(b) was obtained under
section 49, in so far as that section relates to a communication under
section 41; or
(c) was obtained under section 16
of the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988.
(4) A person to whom AUSTRAC information has
been disclosed under subsection (3) must not disclose the information to
another person.
(5) Subsection (4) does not apply if the
disclosure is for the purposes of, or in connection with, the court or tribunal
proceedings or the proposed or possible court or tribunal proceedings.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (5) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(6) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (4); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty for contravention of this subsection: Imprisonment for
2 years or 120 penalty units, or both.
Subdivision D—Communication of AUSTRAC information to foreign countries
etc.
132
Communication of AUSTRAC information to a foreign country etc.
Foreign country
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may communicate AUSTRAC
information to the government of a foreign country if the AUSTRAC CEO is
satisfied that:
(a) the government of the foreign
country has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling the use
that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring
that the information will be used only for the purpose for which it is
communicated to the government of the foreign country; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to communicate the information to the government of
the foreign country.
Foreign law enforcement agency—access by Commissioner
of the Australian Federal Police to AUSTRAC information
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may, in writing,
authorise the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police to have access to
AUSTRAC information for the purposes of communicating the information to a
foreign law enforcement agency under subsection (3).
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
When the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police
may communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign law enforcement agency
(3) The Commissioner of the Australian
Federal Police may communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign law
enforcement agency if the Commissioner is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign law enforcement agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling
the use that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring
that the information will be used only for the purpose for which it is
communicated to the foreign law enforcement agency; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(4) The Commissioner of the Australian
Federal Police may, in writing, authorise a member of the Australian
Federal Police to access the AUSTRAC information and communicate it to the
foreign law enforcement agency on behalf of the Commissioner.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
Foreign law enforcement agency—access by Chief
Executive Officer of the Australian Crime Commission to AUSTRAC information
(5) The AUSTRAC CEO may, in writing,
authorise the Chief Executive Officer of the Australian Crime Commission to
have access to AUSTRAC information for the purposes of communicating the
information to a foreign law enforcement agency under subsection (6).
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
When the Chief Executive Officer of the Australian
Crime Commission may communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign law
enforcement agency
(6) The Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission may communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign
law enforcement agency if the Chief Executive Officer of the Australian Crime
Commission is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign law enforcement agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling
the use that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring
that the information will be used only for the purpose for which it is
communicated to the foreign law enforcement agency; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(7) The Chief Executive Officer of the
Australian Crime Commission may, in writing, authorise a member of the staff of
the Australian Crime Commission to access the AUSTRAC information and
communicate it to the foreign law enforcement agency on behalf of the Chief
Executive Officer of the Australian Crime Commission.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
133
When the Director‑General of Security may communicate AUSTRAC information to a
foreign intelligence agency
(1) The Director‑General of Security may
communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign intelligence agency if the
Director‑General is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign intelligence agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling
the use that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring
that the information will be used only for the purpose for which it is
communicated to the foreign country; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(2) The Director‑General of Security may, in
writing, authorise an ASIO official to access the AUSTRAC information and
communicate it to the foreign intelligence agency on the Director‑General’s
behalf.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
133A
When the Director‑General of ASIS may communicate AUSTRAC information to a
foreign intelligence agency
(1) The Director‑General of ASIS may
communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign intelligence agency if the Director‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign intelligence agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling
the use that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring
that the information will be used only for the purpose for which it is
communicated to the foreign country; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(2) The Director‑General of ASIS may, in
writing, authorise an ASIS official to access the AUSTRAC information and
communicate it to the foreign intelligence agency on the Director‑General’s
behalf.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
133B
When the Director of a defence intelligence agency may communicate AUSTRAC
information to a foreign intelligence agency
(1) The Director of a defence intelligence
agency may communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign intelligence agency if
the Director is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign intelligence agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling the use
that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring that the
information will be used only for the purpose for which it is communicated to
the foreign country; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(2) The Director of a defence intelligence
agency may, in writing, authorise an official of the defence intelligence
agency to access the AUSTRAC information and communicate it to the foreign
intelligence agency on the Director’s behalf.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
133C
When the Director‑General of ONA may communicate AUSTRAC information to a
foreign intelligence agency
(1) The Director‑General of ONA may
communicate AUSTRAC information to a foreign intelligence agency if the
Director‑General is satisfied that:
(a) the foreign intelligence agency
has given appropriate undertakings for:
(i) protecting the
confidentiality of the information; and
(ii) controlling the use
that will be made of it; and
(iii) ensuring that the
information will be used only for the purpose for which it is communicated to
the foreign country; and
(b) it is appropriate, in all the
circumstances of the case, to do so.
(2) The Director‑General of ONA may, in
writing, authorise an official of ONA to access the AUSTRAC information and
communicate it to the foreign intelligence agency on the Director‑General’s
behalf.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
Division 5—Use of AUSTRAC information in court or tribunal proceedings
134
Use of AUSTRAC information in court or tribunal proceedings
A person who obtains AUSTRAC information
is not to be required:
(a) to produce in a court or tribunal
a document containing AUSTRAC information; or
(b) to disclose to any court or
tribunal any AUSTRAC information;
except where it is necessary to do so for the purposes of
carrying into effect the provisions of this Act or the Financial Transaction
Reports Act 1988.
Part 12—Offences
135
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• It is an offence to:
(a) produce
false or misleading information; or
(b) produce a
false or misleading document; or
(c) forge a
document for use in an applicable customer identification procedure; or
(d) provide or
receive a designated service using a false customer name or customer anonymity;
or
(e) structure a
transaction to avoid a reporting obligation under this Act.
136
False or misleading information
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person gives information to:
(i) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(ii) an authorised officer;
or
(iii) a customs officer; or
(iv) a police officer; or
(v) a reporting entity; or
(vi) a person acting on a
reporting entity’s behalf; and
(b) the person does so knowing that
the information:
(i) is false or
misleading; or
(ii) omits any matter or
thing without which the information is misleading; and
(c) the information is given, or
purportedly given, under this Act.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply as a
result of subparagraph (1)(b)(i) if the information is not false or
misleading in a material particular.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply as a
result of subparagraph (1)(b)(ii) if the information did not omit any
matter or thing without which the information is misleading in a material
particular.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(4) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (1)(c) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
137
Producing false or misleading documents
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person produces a document to:
(i) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(ii) an authorised officer;
or
(iii) a customs officer; or
(iv) a police officer; or
(v) a reporting entity; or
(vi) a person acting on a
reporting entity’s behalf; and
(b) the person does so knowing that
the document is false or misleading; and
(c) the document is produced, or
purportedly produced, under this Act.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the
document is not false or misleading in a material particular.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(3) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (1)(c) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
138
False documents
Making a false document
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person makes a false document
with the intention that the person or another will produce the false document
in the course of an applicable customer identification procedure; and
(b) the applicable customer
identification procedure is under this Act.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
(2) In a prosecution for an offence against
subsection (1), it is not necessary to prove that the defendant knew that
the applicable customer identification procedure is under this Act.
Possessing a false document
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person knows that a document
is a false document; and
(b) the person has it in his or her
possession with the intention that the person or another will produce it in the
course of an applicable customer identification procedure; and
(c) the applicable customer
identification procedure is under this Act.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
(4) In a prosecution for an offence against
subsection (3), it is not necessary to prove that the defendant knew that
the applicable customer identification procedure is under this Act.
Possessing equipment for making a false document
(5) A person
commits an offence if the person:
(a) knows that a device, material or
other thing is designed or adapted for the making of a false document (whether
or not the device, material or thing is designed or adapted for another
purpose); and
(b) has the device, material or thing
in his or her possession with the intention that the person or another person
will use it to commit an offence against subsection (1).
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
Making equipment for making a false document
(6) A person commits an offence if the
person:
(a) makes or adapts a device, material
or other thing; and
(b) knows that the device, material or
other thing is designed or adapted for the making of a false document (whether
or not the device, material or thing is designed or adapted for another
purpose); and
(c) makes or adapts the device,
material or thing with the intention that the person or another person will use
it to commit an offence against subsection (1).
Penalty: Imprisonment for 10 years or 10,000 penalty units,
or both.
Interpretation
(7) An expression used in this section that
is also used in Part 7.7 of the Criminal Code has the same meaning
as in that Part.
Note: See also section 10.5 of the Criminal
Code (lawful authority).
139
Providing a designated service using a false customer name or customer
anonymity
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is a reporting entity;
and
(b) the person commences to provide a
designated service; and
(c) the person does so using a false
customer name; and
(d) at least one provision of
Division 2, 3 or 4 of Part 2 applies to the provision of the
designated service.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (1)(d) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is a reporting entity;
and
(b) the person commences to provide a
designated service; and
(c) the person does so on the basis of
customer anonymity; and
(d) at least one provision of
Division 2, 3 or 4 of Part 2 applies to the provision of the
designated service.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(4) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (3)(d) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
140
Receiving a designated service using a false customer name or customer
anonymity
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person commences to receive a
designated service; and
(b) the person does so using a false
customer name; and
(c) at least one provision of
Division 2, 3 or 4 of Part 2 applies to the provision of the
designated service.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (1)(c) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person commences to receive a
designated service; and
(b) the person does so on the basis of
customer anonymity; and
(c) at least one provision of
Division 2, 3 or 4 of Part 2 applies to the provision of the
designated service.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(4) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (3)(c) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
141
Customer commonly known by 2 or more different names—disclosure to reporting
entity
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person commences to receive a
designated service provided by a reporting entity; and
(b) the person is commonly known by 2
or more different names; and
(c) the person commences to receive
the designated service using one of those names; and
(d) the person has not previously
disclosed the other name or names to the reporting entity; and
(e) at least one provision of
Division 2, 3 or 4 of Part 2 applies to the provision of the
designated service.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Strict liability applies to the
paragraph (1)(e) element of the offence.
Note: For strict liability, see
section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
142 Conducting
transactions so as to avoid reporting requirements relating to threshold
transactions
(1) A person (the first person)
commits an offence if:
(a) the first person is, or causes
another person to become, a party to 2 or more non‑reportable transactions; and
(b) having regard to:
(i) the manner and form in
which the transactions were conducted, including the matters to which
subsection (3) applies; and
(ii) any explanation made
by the first person as to the manner or form in which the transactions were
conducted;
it would be reasonable to
conclude that the first person conducted, or caused the transactions to be
conducted, in that manner or form for the sole or dominant purpose of ensuring,
or attempting to ensure, that the money or property involved in the
transactions was transferred in a manner and form that would not give rise to a
threshold transaction that would have been required to have been reported under
section 43.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 5 years or 300 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the
defendant proves that the first person did not conduct the transactions, or
cause the transactions to be conducted, as the case may be, for the sole or
dominant purpose of ensuring, or attempting to ensure, that the money or
property involved in the transactions was transferred in a manner and form that
would not give rise to a threshold transaction that would have been required to
have been reported under section 43.
Note: A defendant bears a legal burden in relation
to the matters in subsection (2)—see section 13.4 of the Criminal
Code.
(3) This subsection applies to the following
matters:
(a) the value of the money or property
involved in each transaction;
(b) the total value of the
transactions;
(c) the period of time over which the
transactions took place;
(d) the interval of time between any
of the transactions;
(e) the locations at which the
transactions took place.
143
Conducting transfers so as to avoid reporting requirements relating to cross‑border
movements of physical currency
(1) A person (the first person)
commits an offence if:
(a) the first person conducts, or
causes another person to conduct, 2 or more non‑reportable cross‑border
movements of physical currency; and
(b) having regard to:
(i) the manner and form in
which the movements were conducted, including the matters to which
subsection (3) applies; and
(ii) any explanation made
by the first person as to the manner or form in which the movements were
conducted;
it would be reasonable to conclude
that the first person conducted the movements, or caused the movements to be
conducted, as the case may be, in that manner or form for the sole or dominant
purpose of ensuring, or attempting to ensure, that no report in relation to the
physical currency involved in the movements would be made under
section 53.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 5 years or 300 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the
defendant proves that the first person did not conduct the movements, or cause
the movements to be conducted, as the case may be, for the sole or dominant
purpose of ensuring, or attempting to ensure, that no report in relation to the
physical currency involved in the movements would be made under
section 53.
Note: A defendant bears a legal burden in relation
to the matters in subsection (2)—see section 13.4 of the Criminal
Code.
(3) This subsection applies to the following
matters:
(a) the total amount of the physical
currency involved in each movement;
(b) the total amount of the physical
currency involved in the movements;
(c) the period of time over which the
movements occurred;
(d) the interval of time between any
of the movements;
(e) the locations at which the
movements were initiated or conducted.
Part 13—Audit
Division 1—Introduction
144
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• An authorised officer may
enter any reporting entity business premises:
(a) with the
occupier’s consent; or
(b) under a
monitoring warrant.
• An authorised officer who
enters any reporting entity business premises may exercise monitoring powers.
• The AUSTRAC CEO may require
a reporting entity to carry out an external audit or a money laundering and
terrorism financing risk assessment.
Division 2—Appointment of authorised officers and issue of identity
cards
145
Appointment of authorised officers
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, in writing, appoint
a member of the staff of AUSTRAC, or a person whose services are made available
to the AUSTRAC CEO under subsection 225(3), to be an authorised officer for the
purposes of this Act.
Note: For revocation, see subsection 33(3) of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO must not appoint a person
to be an authorised officer unless the person satisfies the conditions (if any)
specified in the regulations.
(3) In exercising powers or performing
functions as an authorised officer, an authorised officer must comply with any
directions of the AUSTRAC CEO.
146
Identity cards
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO must issue an identity
card to an authorised officer.
(2) The identity card must
(a) be in a form approved in writing
by the AUSTRAC CEO; and
(b) contain a recent photograph of the
authorised officer.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person has been issued with an
identity card; and
(b) the person ceases to be an
authorised officer; and
(c) the person does not, within 3
business days after so ceasing, return the identity card to the AUSTRAC CEO.
Penalty: 1 penalty unit.
(4) Subsection (3)
does not apply if the person has a reasonable excuse.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (4) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(5) An authorised officer must carry the
identity card at all times when exercising powers or performing functions as an
authorised officer under this Part.
Division 3—Powers of authorised officers
Subdivision A—Monitoring powers
147
Authorised officer may enter premises by consent or under a monitoring warrant
(1) For the purposes of determining whether
the provisions of this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules have been
complied with, an authorised officer may:
(a) enter any reporting entity
business premises at any reasonable time of the day; and
(b) exercise the monitoring powers set
out in section 148.
(2) An authorised officer is not authorised
to enter premises under subsection (1) unless:
(a) the occupier of the premises has
consented to the entry and the officer has shown his or her identity card if
required by the occupier; or
(b) the entry is made under a
monitoring warrant.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
(3) If an authorised officer is on the
premises with the consent of the occupier, the authorised officer must leave
the premises if the occupier asks the authorised officer to do so.
148
Monitoring powers of authorised officers
(1) For the purposes of this Act, the
following are the monitoring powers that an authorised officer
may exercise, in relation to premises, under section 147:
(a) the power to search the premises
for any compliance records that:
(i) are kept at, or
accessible from, the premises; and
(ii) relate to a reporting
entity;
(b) the power to search the premises
for any system used by a reporting entity at the premises for keeping those
records;
(c) the power to search the premises
for any reports under this Act that are retained at, or accessible from, the
premises;
(d) the power to search the premises
for any system used by a reporting entity in connection with:
(i) preparing reports
under this Act; or
(ii) sending such reports
to the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(iii) retaining such
reports;
(e) the power to search the premises
for any other thing on the premises that may be relevant to the obligations of
a reporting entity under this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules;
(f) the power to examine any activity
conducted on the premises that may relate to information provided under this
Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules;
(g) the power to examine any thing on
the premises that may relate to information provided under this Act, the
regulations or the AML/CTF Rules;
(h) the power to take photographs or
make video or audio recordings or sketches on the premises of any such activity
or thing;
(i) the power to inspect any document
on the premises that may relate to information provided under this Act, the
regulations or the AML/CTF Rules;
(j) the power to take extracts from,
or make copies of, any such document;
(k) the power to take onto the
premises such equipment and materials as the authorised officer requires for
the purpose of exercising powers in relation to the premises;
(l) the powers set out in
subsections (2), (3) and (4).
(2) For the purposes of this Act, monitoring
powers include the power to secure a thing for no more than 24 hours
if:
(a) the thing is found during the
exercise of monitoring powers on the premises; and
(b) an authorised officer believes on
reasonable grounds that:
(i) the thing affords
evidence of the commission of an offence against this Act or the regulations,
or evidence of the commission of an offence against the Crimes Act 1914
or the Criminal Code that relates to this Act or the regulations; and
(ii) it is necessary to
secure the thing in order to prevent it from being concealed, lost or destroyed
before a warrant to seize the thing is obtained; and
(iii) the circumstances are
serious and urgent.
(3) For the purposes of this Act, monitoring
powers include the power to operate equipment at the premises to see
whether:
(a) the equipment; or
(b) a data storage device that:
(i) is at the premises;
and
(ii) can be used with the
equipment or is associated with it;
contains information that is relevant to assessing the
correctness of information provided under this Act.
(4) For the purposes of this Act, monitoring
powers include the following powers in relation to information
described in subsection (3) found in the exercise of the power under that
subsection:
(a) the power to operate facilities at
the premises to put the information in documentary form and copy the documents
so produced;
(b) the power to operate facilities at
the premises to transfer the information to a disk, tape or other storage
device that:
(i) is brought to the
premises for the exercise of the power; or
(ii) is at the premises and
the use of which for the purpose has been agreed in writing by the occupier of
the premises;
(c) the power to remove from the
premises a disk, tape or other storage device to which the information has been
transferred in exercise of the power under paragraph (b).
149
Tampering or interfering with things secured in the exercise of monitoring
powers
A person commits an offence if:
(a) a thing has been secured by an authorised
officer in the exercise of the monitoring powers set out in section 148;
and
(b) the person tampers or interferes
with the thing.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
Subdivision B—Powers of authorised officers to ask questions and seek
production of documents
150
Authorised officer may ask questions and seek production of documents
(1) If the authorised officer was authorised
to enter premises because the occupier of the premises consented to the entry,
the authorised officer may ask the occupier to:
(a) answer any questions relating to the
operation of this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules that are put
by the authorised officer; and
(b) produce any document relating to
the operation of this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules that is
requested by the authorised officer.
(2) If the authorised officer was authorised
to enter the premises by a monitoring warrant, the authorised officer may
require any person in or on the premises to:
(a) answer any questions relating to
the operation of this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules that are put by
the authorised officer; and
(b) produce any document relating to
the operation of this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules that is
requested by the authorised officer.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
Self‑incrimination
(4) A person is not excused from answering a
question or producing a document under subsection (2) on the ground that
the answering of the question or the production of the document might tend to
incriminate the person or expose the person to a penalty.
(5) However:
(a) the answer given or the document
produced; or
(b) answering the question or
producing the document;
is not admissible in evidence against the person:
(c) in civil proceedings other than
proceedings under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this
Act; or
(d) in criminal proceedings other
than:
(i) proceedings for an
offence against subsection (3); or
(ii) proceedings for an
offence against section 136 or 137 that relates to this section; or
(iii) proceedings for an
offence against section 137.1 or 137.2 of the Criminal Code that
relates to this section.
Division 4—Obligations and incidental powers of authorised officers
151
Authorised officer must produce identity card on request
An authorised officer is not entitled to
exercise any powers under this Part in relation to premises if:
(a) the occupier of the premises
requires the authorised officer to produce his or her identity card for
inspection by the occupier; and
(b) the authorised officer fails to
comply with the requirement.
152
Consent
(1) Before obtaining the consent of a person
for the purposes of paragraph 147(2)(a), the authorised officer must inform the
person that he or she may refuse consent.
(2) An entry of an authorised officer because
of the consent of a person is not lawful unless the person voluntarily
consented to the entry.
(3) The consent may be expressed to be
limited to entry during a particular period unless the consent is withdrawn
before the end of that period.
(4) A consent that is not limited as
mentioned in subsection (3) has effect until the consent is withdrawn.
(5) If an authorised officer entered premises
because of the consent of a person, the authorised officer must leave the
premises if the person withdraws the consent.
153
Announcement before entry
An authorised officer executing a monitoring
warrant must, before entering premises under the warrant:
(a) announce that he or she is
authorised to enter the premises; and
(b) give
any person at the premises an opportunity to allow entry to the premises.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
154
Details of monitoring warrant to be given to occupier etc. before entry
(1) If:
(a) a monitoring warrant is being
executed in relation to premises; and
(b) either:
(i) the occupier of the
premises is present at the premises; or
(ii) the occupier of the
premises is not present at the premises, but another person who apparently
represents the occupier is present at the premises;
the authorised officer must make a copy of the warrant
available to:
(c) if subparagraph (b)(i)
applies—the occupier of the premises; or
(d) if subparagraph (b)(ii)
applies—the person who apparently represents the occupier.
(2) The authorised officer must identify himself
or herself to that person.
(3) The copy of the warrant mentioned in
subsection (1) need not include the signature of the magistrate who issued
the warrant.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
155
Use of electronic equipment in exercising monitoring powers
(1) This section applies to the following
premises:
(a) premises that an authorised
officer has entered, and remains on, with the consent of the occupier;
(b) warrant premises.
(2) An authorised officer or a person
assisting that officer may operate electronic equipment already at the premises
in order to exercise monitoring powers if he or she believes, on reasonable
grounds, that the operation of the equipment can be carried out without damage
to the equipment.
(3) If the authorised officer or a person
assisting believes, on reasonable grounds, that:
(a) there is on the premises material
relating to information provided under this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF
Rules that may be accessible by operating electronic equipment on the premises;
and
(b) expert assistance is required to
operate the equipment; and
(c) if he or she does not take action
under this subsection, the material may be destroyed, altered or otherwise
interfered with;
he or she may do whatever is necessary to secure the
equipment, whether by locking it up, placing a guard, or otherwise.
(4) The authorised officer or a person
assisting must give notice to the occupier of the premises of his or her
intention to secure equipment and of the fact that the equipment may be secured
for up to 24 hours.
(5) The equipment may be secured:
(a) for a period not exceeding 24
hours; or
(b) until the equipment has been
operated by the expert;
whichever first happens.
(6) If an authorised officer or a person
assisting believes, on reasonable grounds, that the expert assistance will not
be available within 24 hours, he or she may apply to a magistrate for an
extension of the period.
(7) The authorised officer or a person
assisting must give notice to the occupier of the premises of his or her
intention to apply for an extension. The occupier is entitled to be heard in
relation to that application.
(8) The provisions of this Part relating to
the issue of monitoring warrants apply, with such modifications as are necessary,
to the issue of an extension.
156
Compensation for damage to electronic equipment
(1) This
section applies if:
(a) as a result of electronic
equipment being operated as mentioned in section 155:
(i) damage is caused to
the equipment; or
(ii) the data recorded on
the equipment is damaged; or
(iii) programs associated
with the use of the equipment, or with the use of the data, are damaged or
corrupted; and
(b) the damage or corruption occurs
because:
(i) insufficient care was
exercised in selecting the person who was to operate the equipment; or
(ii) insufficient care was
exercised by the person operating the equipment.
(2) The Commonwealth must pay the owner of
the equipment, or the user of the data or programs, such reasonable
compensation for the damage or corruption as the Commonwealth and the owner or
user agree on.
(3) However, if the owner or user and the
Commonwealth fail to agree, the owner or user may institute proceedings in the
Federal Court for such reasonable amount of compensation as the Court
determines.
(4) In determining the amount of compensation
payable under subsection (3), regard is to be had to whether the occupier
of the premises, or the occupier’s employees and agents, if they were available
at the time, provided any appropriate warning or guidance on the operation of
the equipment.
(5) Compensation is payable out of money
appropriated by the Parliament.
Division 5—Occupier’s rights and responsibilities
157
Occupier entitled to be present during execution of monitoring warrant
(1) If:
(a) a monitoring warrant is being
executed; and
(b) the occupier of the warrant
premises, or another person who apparently represents the occupier, is present
at the premises;
the person is entitled to observe the execution of the
warrant.
(2) The right to observe the execution of the
warrant ceases if the person impedes that execution.
(3) This section does not prevent the
execution of the warrant in 2 or more areas of the premises at the same time.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
158
Occupier to provide authorised officer with facilities and assistance
(1) The occupier of warrant premises, or
another person who apparently represents the occupier, must provide:
(a) the authorised officer executing
the monitoring warrant; and
(b) any person assisting that officer;
with all reasonable facilities and assistance for the
effective exercise of their powers.
Note: Monitoring warrants are issued under
section 159.
(2) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty for contravention of this subsection: 30 penalty
units.
Division 6—Monitoring warrants
159
Monitoring warrants
(1) An authorised officer may apply to a
magistrate for a warrant under this section in relation to reporting entity
business premises.
Note: A warrant under this section is called a monitoring
warrant.
(2) The magistrate may issue the warrant if
the magistrate is satisfied, by information on oath or affirmation, that it is
reasonably necessary that one or more authorised officers should have access to
the premises for the purposes of determining whether the provisions of this
Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules have been, or are being,
complied with. This subsection has effect subject to subsection (3).
(3) The magistrate must not issue the warrant
unless the authorised officer or some other person has given to the magistrate,
either orally or by affidavit, such further information (if any) as the
magistrate requires concerning the grounds on which the issue of the warrant is
being sought.
(4) The warrant must:
(a) contain a description of the
premises to which the warrant relates; and
(b) authorise one or more authorised
officers (whether or not named in the warrant), and any person or persons
assisting the authorised officer or authorised officers:
(i) to enter the premises;
and
(ii) to exercise the powers
set out in section 148 in relation to the premises; and
(c) state whether the entry is
authorised to be made at any time of the day or during specified hours of the
day; and
(d) specify the day (not more than 6
months after the issue of the warrant) on which the warrant ceases to have
effect; and
(e) state the purpose for which the
warrant is issued.
160
Magistrates—personal capacity
Functions conferred personally
(1) The functions conferred on a magistrate
by section 159 are conferred on the magistrate:
(a) in a personal capacity; and
(b) not as a court or a member of a
court.
Functions need not be accepted
(2) The magistrate need not accept the
functions conferred.
Protection and immunity
(3) A magistrate performing a function
conferred by section 159 has the same protection and immunity as if he or
she were performing the function:
(a) as the court of which the
magistrate is a member; or
(b) as a member of the court of which
the magistrate is a member.
Division 7—External audits
161
External audits—risk management etc.
Scope
(1) This section applies if the AUSTRAC CEO
has reasonable grounds to suspect that a reporting entity has not taken, or is
not taking, appropriate action to:
(a) identify; and
(b) mitigate; and
(c) manage;
the risk the reporting entity may reasonably face that the
provision by the reporting entity of designated services at or through a
permanent establishment of the entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently
or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(d) money laundering; or
(e) financing of terrorism.
Requirement
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by written notice
given to the reporting entity, require the reporting entity to:
(a) appoint an external auditor; and
(b) arrange for the external auditor
to carry out an external audit of the reporting entity’s capacity and
endeavours to:
(i) identify; and
(ii) mitigate; and
(iii) manage;
the risk the reporting entity
may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism;
and
(c) arrange for the external auditor
to give the reporting entity a written report (the audit report)
setting out the results of the audit; and
(d) give the AUSTRAC CEO a copy of the
audit report within:
(i) the period specified
in the notice; or
(ii) if the AUSTRAC CEO
allows a longer period—that longer period.
(3) The notice must specify:
(a) the matters to be covered by the
audit; and
(b) the form of the audit report and
the kinds of details it is to contain.
(4) The matters that may be specified under
paragraph (3)(a) may include either or both of the following:
(a) an assessment of the risk the
reporting entity may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity
of designated services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting
entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or
facilitate:
(i) money laundering; or
(ii) financing of
terrorism;
(b) an assessment of what the
reporting entity will need to do, or continue to do, to:
(i) identify; and
(ii) mitigate; and
(iii) manage;
the risk the reporting entity
may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism.
(5) Subsection (4) does not limit
paragraph (3)(a).
Eligibility for appointment as an external auditor
(6) An
individual is not eligible to be appointed an external auditor by a reporting
entity if:
(a) the individual is an officer,
employee or agent of the reporting entity; or
(b) both:
(i) the reporting entity
belongs to a designated business group; and
(ii) the individual is an
officer, employee or agent of another member of the designated business group.
Offence
(7) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
Civil penalty
(8) A reporting entity must comply with a
requirement under subsection (2).
(9) Subsection (8) is a civil penalty
provision.
162
External audits—compliance
(1) This section applies if the AUSTRAC CEO
has reasonable grounds to suspect that a reporting entity has contravened, is
contravening, or is proposing to contravene, this Act, the regulations or the
AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by written notice
given to the reporting entity, require the reporting entity to:
(a) appoint an external auditor; and
(b) arrange for the external auditor
to carry out an external audit of whichever of the following is specified in
the notice:
(i) the reporting entity’s
compliance with this Act, the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules;
(ii) one or more specified
aspects of the reporting entity’s compliance with this Act, the regulations and
the AML/CTF Rules; and
(c) arrange for the external auditor
to give the reporting entity a written report (the audit report)
setting out the results of the audit; and
(d) give the AUSTRAC CEO a copy of the
audit report within:
(i) the period specified
in the notice; or
(ii) if the AUSTRAC CEO
allows a longer period—that longer period.
(3) The notice must specify:
(a) the matters to be covered by the
audit; and
(b) the form of the audit report and
the kinds of details it is to contain.
(4) The matters that may be specified under
paragraph (3)(a) may include either or both of the following:
(a) an assessment of the reporting
entity’s existing capacity to comply with this Act, the regulations and the
AML/CTF Rules;
(b) an assessment of what the
reporting entity will need to do, or continue to do, to comply with this Act,
the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules.
(5) Subsection (4) does not limit
paragraph (3)(a).
Eligibility for appointment as an external auditor
(6) An individual is not eligible to be
appointed an external auditor by a reporting entity if:
(a) the individual is an officer,
employee or agent of the reporting entity; or
(b) both:
(i) the reporting entity
belongs to a designated business group; and
(ii) the individual is an
officer, employee or agent of another member of the designated business group.
Offence
(7) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 12 months or 60 penalty units, or
both.
Civil penalty
(8) A reporting entity must comply with a
requirement under subsection (2).
(9) Subsection (8) is a civil penalty
provision.
163
External auditor may have regard to the results of previous audit
In carrying out an external audit in
accordance with a notice under section 161 or 162, an external auditor
may, if:
(a) an external audit was completed
under that section within the last preceding 2 years; and
(b) the external auditor is satisfied
that the previous audit is still relevant;
have regard to the results of the previous audit.
164
External auditors
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by writing,
authorise a specified individual to be an external auditor for the purposes of
this Act.
Note 1: For specification by class, see subsection
46(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
Note 2: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) An authorisation under
subsection (1) is not a legislative instrument.
164A
Review of decisions
(1) Applications may be made to the
Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of decisions of the AUSTRAC CEO
under section 161.
(2) In this
section:
decision has the same meaning as in the Administrative
Appeals Tribunal Act 1975.
Division 8—Money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessments
165
Money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessments
Scope
(1) This section applies if the AUSTRAC CEO
is satisfied that:
(a) a reporting entity has not carried
out a money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessment; or
(b) a reporting entity has carried out
a money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessment, but the assessment
has ceased to be current; or
(c) a reporting entity has carried out
a money laundering and terrorism financing risk assessment, but the assessment
is inadequate.
Requirement
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by written notice
given to the reporting entity, require the reporting entity to:
(a) carry out a money laundering and
terrorism financing risk assessment; and
(b) prepare a written report setting
out the results of the assessment; and
(c) give the AUSTRAC CEO a copy of the
report within:
(i) the period specified
in the notice; or
(ii) if the AUSTRAC CEO
allows a longer period—that longer period.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
Civil penalty
(4) A reporting entity must comply with a
requirement under subsection (2).
(5) Subsection (4) is a civil penalty provision.
Money laundering and terrorism financing program risk
assessment
(6) For the purposes of this Act, a money
laundering and terrorism financing risk assessment is an assessment by
a reporting entity of:
(a) the risk the reporting entity may
reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(i) money laundering; or
(ii) financing of
terrorism; and
(b) what the reporting entity will
need to do, or continue to do, to:
(i) identify; and
(ii) mitigate; and
(iii) manage;
the risk the reporting entity
may reasonably face that the provision by the reporting entity of designated
services at or through a permanent establishment of the reporting entity in Australia might (whether inadvertently or otherwise) involve or facilitate:
(iv) money laundering; or
(v) financing of terrorism.
Part 14—Information‑gathering powers
166 Simplified
outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• An authorised officer may
obtain information or documents.
167
Authorised officer may obtain information and documents
Scope
(1) This section applies to a person if an
authorised officer believes on reasonable grounds that:
(a) any of the following subparagraphs
applies:
(i) the person is or has
been a reporting entity;
(ii) the person is or has
been an officer, employee or agent of a reporting entity;
(iii) the person’s name is
or has been entered on the Register of Providers of Designated Remittance
Services; and
(b) the person has information or a
document that is relevant to the operation of this Act, the regulations or the
AML/CTF Rules.
Requirement
(2) The authorised officer may, by written
notice given to the person, require the person:
(a) to give to the authorised officer,
within the period and in the manner specified in the notice, any such
information; or
(b) to produce to the authorised
officer, within the period and in the manner specified in the notice, any such
documents; or
(c) to make copies of any such
documents and to produce to the authorised officer, within the period and in
the manner specified in the notice, those copies.
Offence
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person has been given a notice
under subsection (2); and
(b) the person omits to do an act; and
(c) the omission contravenes a
requirement in the notice.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
Notice to set out the effect of offence provisions
(4) A notice under subsection (2) must
set out the effect of the following provisions:
(a) subsection (3);
(b) section 136;
(c) section 137.
Note 1: Section 136 is about giving false or
misleading information.
Note 2: Section 137 is about producing false or
misleading documents.
168
Copying documents—reasonable compensation
A person is entitled to be paid
reasonable compensation for complying with a requirement covered by paragraph
167(2)(c).
169
Self‑incrimination
(1) A person is not excused from giving
information or producing a document under section 167 on the ground that
the information or the production of the document might tend to incriminate the
person or expose the person to a penalty.
(2) However:
(a) the information given or the
document produced; or
(b) giving the information or
producing the document;
is not admissible in evidence against the person:
(c) in civil proceedings other than
proceedings under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this
Act; or
(d) in criminal proceedings other
than:
(i) proceedings for an
offence against subsection 167(3); or
(ii) proceedings for an
offence against section 136 or 137 that relates to this Part; or
(iii) proceedings for an
offence against section 137.1 or 137.2 of the Criminal Code that
relates to this Part.
170
Copies of documents
An authorised officer may inspect a
document produced under this Part and may make and retain copies of, or take
and retain extracts from, such a document.
171 Authorised
officer may retain documents
(1) An authorised officer may take possession
of a document produced under this Part, and retain it for as long as is
reasonably necessary.
(2) The person otherwise entitled to
possession of the document is entitled to be supplied, as soon as practicable,
with a copy certified by the authorised officer to be a true copy.
(3) The certified copy must be received in
all courts and tribunals as evidence as if it were the original.
(4) Until a certified copy is supplied, the
authorised officer must provide the person otherwise entitled to possession of
the document, or a person authorised by that person, reasonable access to the
document for the purposes of inspecting and making copies of, or taking
extracts from, the document.
172
Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code
If a person, or an officer, employee or
agent of a person, provides information under a notice under subsection 167(2),
the person, officer, employee or agent is taken, for the purposes of Division 400
and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code, not to have been in possession
of that information at any time.
Part 15—Enforcement
Division 1—Introduction
173
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• Pecuniary penalties are
payable for contraventions of civil penalty provisions.
• Authorised officers,
customs officers and police officers may issue infringement notices for
unreported cross‑border movements of physical currency and bearer negotiable
instruments.
• The AUSTRAC CEO is to
monitor compliance by reporting entities with their obligations under this Act,
the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules.
• The AUSTRAC CEO may give a
remedial direction to a reporting entity that has contravened a civil penalty
provision.
• The Federal Court may grant
injunctions in relation to contraventions of civil penalty provisions.
• The AUSTRAC CEO may accept
enforceable undertakings.
• Customs officers and police
officers may exercise powers of questioning, search and arrest in connection
with a cross‑border movement of physical currency or bearer negotiable
instruments.
Division 2—Civil penalties
174
Ancillary contravention of civil penalty provision
(1) A person must not:
(a) attempt to contravene a civil
penalty provision (other than this subsection); or
(b) aid, abet, counsel or procure a
contravention of a civil penalty provision (other than this subsection); or
(c) induce, whether by threats or
promises or otherwise, a contravention of a civil penalty provision (other than
this subsection); or
(d) be in any way, directly or
indirectly, knowingly concerned in, or party to, a contravention of a civil
penalty provision (other than this subsection); or
(e) conspire with others to effect a
contravention of a civil penalty provision (other than this subsection).
Civil penalty
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty
provision.
175
Civil penalty orders
(1) If the Federal Court is satisfied that a
person has contravened a civil penalty provision, the Federal Court may order
the person to pay the Commonwealth a pecuniary penalty.
(2) An order under subsection (1) is to
be known as a civil penalty order.
Determining amount of pecuniary penalty
(3) In determining the pecuniary penalty, the
Federal Court must have regard to all relevant matters, including:
(a) the nature and extent of the
contravention; and
(b) the nature and extent of any loss
or damage suffered as a result of the contravention; and
(c) the circumstances in which the
contravention took place; and
(d) whether the person has previously
been found by the Federal Court in proceedings under this Act to have engaged
in any similar conduct; and
(e) if the Federal Court considers
that it is appropriate to do so—whether the person has previously been found by
a court in proceedings under a law of a State or Territory to have engaged in
any similar conduct; and
(f) if the Federal Court considers
that it is appropriate to do so—whether the person has previously been found by
a court in a foreign country to have engaged in any similar conduct; and
(g) if the Federal Court considers
that it is appropriate to do so—whether the person has previously been found by
a court in proceedings under the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988
to have engaged in any similar conduct.
Maximum pecuniary penalty
(4) The pecuniary penalty payable by a body
corporate must not exceed 100,000 penalty units.
(5) The pecuniary penalty payable by a person
other than a body corporate must not exceed 20,000 penalty units.
Conduct contravening more than one civil penalty
provision
(6) If conduct constitutes a contravention of
2 or more civil penalty provisions, proceedings may be instituted under this
section against a person in relation to the contravention of any one or more of
those provisions. However, the person is not liable to more than one pecuniary
penalty under this section in respect of the same conduct.
Civil enforcement of penalty
(7) The pecuniary penalty is a civil debt
payable to the Commonwealth. The Commonwealth may enforce the civil penalty
order as if it were an order made in civil proceedings against the person to
recover a debt due by the person. The debt arising from the order is taken to
be a judgment debt.
176
Who may apply for a civil penalty order
(1) Only the
AUSTRAC CEO may apply for a civil penalty order.
(2) Subsection (1) does not exclude the
operation of the Director of Public Prosecutions Act 1983.
177 2
or more proceedings may be heard together
The Federal Court may direct that 2 or
more proceedings for civil penalty orders are to be heard together.
178
Time limit for application for an order
Proceedings for a civil penalty order
may be started no later than 6 years after the contravention.
179
Civil evidence and procedure rules for civil penalty orders
The Federal Court must apply the rules
of evidence and procedure for civil matters when hearing proceedings for a
civil penalty order.
180
Civil proceedings after criminal proceedings
The Federal Court must not make a civil
penalty order against a person for a contravention if the person has been
convicted of an offence constituted by conduct that is substantially the same
as the conduct constituting the contravention.
181
Criminal proceedings during civil proceedings
(1) Proceedings for a civil penalty order
against a person are stayed if:
(a) criminal proceedings are started
or have already been started against the person for an offence; and
(b) the offence is constituted by
conduct that is substantially the same as the conduct alleged to constitute
the contravention.
(2) The proceedings for the order may be
resumed if the person is not convicted of the offence. Otherwise, the
proceedings for the order are dismissed.
182
Criminal proceedings after civil proceedings
Criminal
proceedings may be started against a person for conduct that is substantially
the same as conduct constituting a contravention of a civil penalty provision
regardless of whether a civil penalty order has been made against the person.
183
Evidence given in proceedings for penalty not admissible in criminal
proceedings
Evidence of information given, or
evidence of production of documents, by an individual is not admissible in
criminal proceedings against the individual if:
(a) the individual previously gave the
evidence or produced the documents in proceedings for a civil penalty order
against the individual for a contravention of a civil penalty provision
(whether or not the order was made); and
(b) the conduct alleged to constitute
the offence is substantially the same as the conduct that was claimed to
constitute the contravention.
However, this does not apply to a criminal proceeding in
respect of the falsity of the evidence given by the individual in the
proceedings for the civil penalty order.
Division 3—Infringement notices for unreported cross‑border movements of
physical currency and bearer negotiable instruments
184
When an infringement notice can be given
(1) If an authorised officer, a customs
officer or a police officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
contravened subsection 53(3) or 59(4), the officer may give the person an
infringement notice relating to the contravention.
(2) The infringement notice must be given
within 12 months after the day on which the contravention is alleged to have
taken place.
(3) If a customs officer or a police officer
issues an infringement notice, the officer must, within 5 business days after
the day of issue of the infringement notice, forward a copy of the infringement
notice to the AUSTRAC CEO.
185
Matters to be included in an infringement notice
An infringement notice must:
(a) set out the name of the person to
whom the notice is given; and
(b) set out the name of the person who
gave the notice; and
(c) set out brief details relating to
the alleged contravention of subsection 53(3) or 59(4), including the date of
the alleged contravention; and
(d) contain a statement to the effect
that neither criminal nor civil penalty proceedings will be brought in relation
to the matter if the penalty specified in the notice is paid to the AUSTRAC
CEO, on behalf of the Commonwealth, within:
(i) 28 days after the
notice is given; or
(ii) if the AUSTRAC CEO
allows a longer period—that longer period; and
(e) give an explanation of how payment
of the penalty is to be made; and
(f) set out such other matters (if
any) as are specified in the regulations.
186
Amount of penalty
(1) The penalty to be specified in an
infringement notice relating to an alleged contravention of subsection 53(3)
must be a pecuniary penalty equal to:
(a) if the total amount of the
physical currency involved in the alleged contravention is $20,000 or more—5
penalty units; or
(b) otherwise—2 penalty units.
(2) The penalty to be specified in an
infringement notice relating to an alleged contravention of subsection 59(4)
must be a pecuniary penalty equal to:
(a) if the total value of the bearer
negotiable instruments involved in the alleged contravention is $20,000 or
more—5 penalty units; or
(b) otherwise—2 penalty units.
187
Withdrawal of an infringement notice
(1) This section applies if an infringement
notice is given to a person.
(2) An authorised officer may, by written
notice (the withdrawal notice) given to the person, withdraw the
infringement notice.
(3) To be effective, the withdrawal notice
must be given to the person within 28 days after the infringement notice was
given.
Refund of penalty if infringement notice withdrawn
(4) If:
(a) the penalty specified in the
infringement notice is paid; and
(b) the infringement notice is withdrawn
after the penalty is paid;
the Commonwealth is liable to refund the penalty.
188
What happens if the penalty is paid
(1) This section applies if:
(a) an infringement notice relating to
an alleged contravention of subsection 53(3) or 59(4) is given to a person; and
(b) the penalty is paid in accordance
with the infringement notice; and
(c) the infringement notice is not
withdrawn.
(2) Any liability of the person for the
alleged contravention is discharged.
(3) Criminal proceedings, or section 175
proceedings, may not be brought against the person for the alleged
contravention.
189
Effect of this Division on criminal and civil proceedings
This Division does not:
(a) require an infringement notice to
be given in relation to an alleged contravention of subsection 53(3) or 59(4);
or
(b) affect the liability of a person
to have:
(i) criminal proceedings
brought against the person for an alleged contravention of subsection 53(1) or
59(3); or
(ii) section 175
proceedings brought against the person for an alleged contravention of
subsection 53(3) or 59(4);
if:
(iii) the person does not
comply with an infringement notice relating to the contravention; or
(iv) an infringement notice
relating to the contravention is not given to the person; or
(v) an infringement notice
relating to the contravention is given to the person and subsequently
withdrawn; or
(c) limit a court’s discretion to
determine the amount of a penalty to be imposed on a person who:
(i) is found in criminal
proceedings to have contravened subsection 53(1) or 59(3); or
(ii) is found in
section 175 proceedings to have contravened subsection 53(3) or 59(4).
Division 4—Monitoring of compliance
190
Monitoring of compliance
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO is to monitor, and report
to the Minister on, compliance by reporting entities with their obligations
under this Act, the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) If:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO has reasonable
grounds to believe that a reporting entity has breached any of its obligations
under this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF Rules; and
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO is satisfied that
the breach is relevant to the performance of the functions, or the exercise of
the powers, of an Australian government body; and
(c) the AUSTRAC CEO has given the
Minister a report about the breach;
the AUSTRAC CEO may give the body a copy of that report.
(3) An action, suit or proceeding (whether
criminal or civil) does not lie against:
(a) the Commonwealth; or
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO; or
(c) a member of the staff of AUSTRAC;
in relation to any action taken under this section by way
of:
(d) the giving of a report; or
(e) the giving of a copy of a report.
(4) Subsection (2) does not limit
section 126.
Division 5—Remedial directions
191
Remedial directions
(1) This section applies if the AUSTRAC CEO
is satisfied that a reporting entity has contravened, or is contravening, a
civil penalty provision (other than subsection (4)).
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO may give the reporting
entity a written direction requiring the reporting entity to take specified
action directed towards ensuring that the reporting entity does not contravene
the civil penalty provision, or is unlikely to contravene the civil penalty
provision, in the future.
(3) The following are examples of the kinds
of direction that may be given to a reporting entity under subsection (2):
(a) a direction that the reporting
entity implement effective administrative systems for monitoring compliance
with a civil penalty provision;
(b) a direction that the reporting
entity implement a system designed to give the reporting entity’s officers,
employees and agents a reasonable knowledge and understanding of the
requirements of a civil penalty provision, in so far as those requirements
affect the officers, employees or agents concerned.
(4) A reporting entity must not contravene a
direction under subsection (2).
Civil penalty
(5) Subsection (4) is a civil penalty
provision.
Remedial direction is not a legislative instrument
(6) A direction under subsection (2) is
not a legislative instrument.
191A
Review of decisions
(1) Applications may be made to the
Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of decisions of the AUSTRAC CEO
under section 191.
(2) In this section:
decision has the same meaning as in the Administrative
Appeals Tribunal Act 1975.
Division 6—Injunctions
192
Injunctions
Restraining injunctions
(1) If a person has engaged, is engaging or
is proposing to engage, in any conduct in contravention of a civil penalty
provision, the Federal Court may, on the application of the AUSTRAC CEO, grant
an injunction:
(a) restraining the person from
engaging in the conduct; and
(b) if, in the Court’s opinion, it is
desirable to do so—requiring the person to do something.
Performance injunctions
(2) If:
(a) a person has refused or failed, or
is refusing or failing, or is proposing to refuse or fail, to do an act or
thing; and
(b) the refusal or failure was, is or
would be a contravention of a civil penalty provision;
the Federal Court may, on the application of the AUSTRAC CEO,
grant an injunction requiring the person to do that act or thing.
193
Interim injunctions
Grant of interim injunction
(1) If an application is made to the Federal
Court for an injunction under section 192, the Court may, before
considering the application, grant an interim injunction restraining a person
from engaging in conduct of a kind mentioned in that section.
No undertakings as to damages
(2) The Federal Court is not to require an
applicant for an injunction under section 192, as a condition of granting
an interim injunction, to give any undertakings as to damages.
194
Discharge etc. of injunctions
The Federal Court may discharge or vary
an injunction granted under this Division.
195
Certain limits on granting injunctions not to apply
Restraining injunctions
(1) The power of the Federal Court under this
Division to grant an injunction restraining a person from engaging in conduct
of a particular kind may be exercised:
(a) if the Court is satisfied that the
person has engaged in conduct of that kind—whether or not it appears to the
Court that the person intends to engage again, or to continue to engage, in
conduct of that kind; or
(b) if it appears to the Court that,
if an injunction is not granted, it is likely that the person will engage in
conduct of that kind—whether or not the person has previously engaged in
conduct of that kind and whether or not there is an imminent danger of
substantial damage to any person if the person engages in conduct of that kind.
Performance injunctions
(2) The power of the Federal Court to grant
an injunction requiring a person to do an act or thing may be exercised:
(a) if the Court is satisfied that the
person has refused or failed to do that act or thing—whether or not it appears
to the Court that the person intends to refuse or fail again, or to continue to
refuse or fail, to do that act or thing; or
(b) if it appears to the Court that,
if an injunction is not granted, it is likely that the person will refuse or
fail to do that act or thing—whether or not the person has previously refused
or failed to do that act or thing and whether or not there is an imminent
danger of substantial damage to any person if the person refuses or fails to do
that act or thing.
196
Other powers of the Federal Court unaffected
The powers conferred on the Federal
Court under this Division are in addition to, and not instead of, any other
powers of the Court, whether conferred by this Act or otherwise.
Division 7—Enforceable undertakings
197
Acceptance of undertakings
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may accept any of the
following undertakings:
(a) a written undertaking given by a
person that the person will, in order to comply with this Act, the regulations
or the AML/CTF Rules, take specified action;
(b) a written undertaking given by a
person that the person will, in order to comply with this Act, the regulations
or the AML/CTF Rules, refrain from taking specified action;
(c) a written undertaking given by a
person that the person will take specified action directed towards ensuring
that the person does not contravene this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF
Rules, or is unlikely to contravene this Act, the regulations or the AML/CTF
Rules, in the future.
(2) The undertaking must be expressed to be
an undertaking under this section.
(3) The person may withdraw or vary the
undertaking at any time, but only with the consent of the AUSTRAC CEO.
(4) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by written notice
given to the person, cancel the undertaking.
(5) The AUSTRAC CEO may publish a copy of the
undertaking on AUSTRAC’s website, but the AUSTRAC CEO must delete from the copy
information that the AUSTRAC CEO is satisfied:
(a) is commercial in confidence; or
(b) should not be released because it
would be against the public interest to do so; or
(c) consists of personal details of an
individual.
(6) If:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO publishes a copy
of the undertaking on AUSTRAC’s website; and
(b) the copy has information deleted
from it;
the copy must include a note stating that information has
been deleted.
198
Enforcement of undertakings
(1) If:
(a) a person has given an undertaking
under section 197; and
(b) the undertaking has not been
withdrawn or cancelled; and
(c) the AUSTRAC CEO considers that the
person has breached the undertaking;
the AUSTRAC CEO may apply to the Federal Court for an
order under subsection (2).
(2) If the Federal Court is satisfied that
the person has breached the undertaking, the Court may make any or all of the
following orders:
(a) an order directing the person to
comply with the undertaking;
(b) an order directing the person to
pay to the Commonwealth an amount up to the amount of any financial benefit
that the person has obtained directly or indirectly and that is reasonably
attributable to the breach;
(c) any order that the Court considers
appropriate directing the person to compensate any other person who has
suffered loss or damage as a result of the breach;
(d) any other order that the Court
considers appropriate.
Division 8—Powers of questioning, search and arrest in relation to cross‑border
movements of physical currency and bearer negotiable instruments
199
Questioning and search powers in relation to physical currency
Person leaving Australia
(1) A person who is:
(a) about to leave Australia; or
(b) in an embarkation area for the
purpose of leaving Australia;
must, if required to do so by a police officer or a
customs officer:
(c) declare whether or not the person
has with him or her any Australian currency or foreign currency; and
(d) declare the total amount of any
Australian currency or foreign currency that the person has with him or her;
and
(e) declare whether or not, to the
best of the person’s knowledge and belief, a report under section 53 has
been given in respect of any Australian currency or foreign currency that the
person has with him or her; and
(f) produce to the officer any
Australian currency or foreign currency that the person has with him or her.
Person arriving in Australia
(2) A person who arrives in Australia must, if required to do so by a police officer or a customs officer:
(a) declare whether or not the person
has with him or her any Australian currency or foreign currency; and
(b) declare the total amount of any
Australian currency or foreign currency that the person has with him or her;
and
(c) declare whether or not, to the
best of the person’s knowledge and belief, a report under section 53 has
been given in respect of any Australian currency or foreign currency that the
person has with him or her; and
(d) produce to the officer any
Australian currency or foreign currency that the person has with him or her.
Powers of examination and search
(3) A police officer or a customs officer
may, with such assistance as is reasonable and necessary, examine an article
which a person has with him or her if the person:
(a) is about to leave Australia or has arrived in Australia; or
(b) is about to board or leave, or has
boarded or left, any ship or aircraft;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any physical currency in respect of which a report under
section 53 is required.
(4) Either:
(a) a police officer; or
(b) a customs officer in respect of
whom a declaration under section 219ZA of the Customs Act 1901 is
in force;
may, with such assistance as is reasonable and necessary,
search a person for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with him
or her any physical currency in respect of which a report under section 53
is required, so long as:
(c) any of the following subparagraphs
applies:
(i) the person is about to
leave Australia;
(ii) the person has arrived
in Australia;
(iii) the person is about to
board or leave a ship or aircraft;
(iv) the person has boarded
or left a ship or aircraft; and
(d) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that there is on the person, or in clothing being worn by the
person, physical currency in respect of which a report under section 53 is
required.
(5) If a police officer or a customs officer
has reasonable grounds to suspect that physical currency found in the course of
an examination or search under subsection (3) or (4) may afford evidence
as to the commission of an offence against section 53, the officer may
seize the physical currency.
(6) A person must not be searched under
subsection (4) except by a person of the same sex.
Boarding of ships and aircraft
(7) A police officer or a customs officer,
and any person assisting a police officer or customs officer, may board a ship
or aircraft for the purpose of exercising the powers conferred by subsection (1),
(2), (3) or (4).
(8) A police officer or a customs officer
may, with such assistance as is reasonable and necessary:
(a) board a ship or aircraft; and
(b) examine or search the ship or
aircraft, and any goods found on the ship or aircraft;
for the purpose of ascertaining whether there is on board
the ship or aircraft any physical currency in respect of which a report under
section 53 is required.
Entry to eligible places
(9) A police officer or a customs officer
may, with such assistance as is reasonable and necessary:
(a) go onto or enter any eligible
place; and
(b) examine the place, and any goods
found at or in it;
for the purpose of finding out whether there is at or in
the place, or in the goods, any physical currency in respect of which a report
under section 53 is required.
Seizure
(10) If a police officer or a customs officer
has reasonable grounds to suspect that physical currency found in the course of
an examination or search under subsection (8) or (9) may afford evidence
as to the commission of an offence against section 53, the officer may
seize the physical currency.
Offence
(11) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty for contravention of this subsection: Imprisonment for
1 year or 60 penalty units, or both.
200
Questioning and search powers in relation to bearer negotiable instruments
Person leaving Australia
(1) A person who is:
(a) about to leave Australia; or
(b) in an embarkation area for the
purpose of leaving Australia;
must, if required to do so by a police officer or a
customs officer:
(c) declare whether or not the person
has with him or her any bearer negotiable instruments; and
(d) declare the amount payable under
each bearer negotiable instrument that the person has with him or her; and
(e) produce to the officer each bearer
negotiable instrument that the person has with him or her.
Person arriving in Australia
(2) A person who arrives in Australia must, if required to do so by a police officer or a customs officer:
(a) declare whether or not the person
has with him or her any bearer negotiable instruments; and
(b) declare the amount payable under
each bearer negotiable instrument that the person has with him or her; and
(c) produce to the officer each bearer
negotiable instrument that the person has with him or her.
Officer may copy bearer negotiable instruments
(3) If a person produces a bearer negotiable
instrument to a police officer or a customs officer under subsection (1)
or (2), the officer may make a copy of the bearer negotiable instrument. Once
copied, the officer must return the bearer negotiable instrument to the person.
Officer may conduct searches etc.
(4) If:
(a) a police officer or a customs
officer has asked a person to make a declaration under subsection (1) or
(2); and
(b) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that the person has made a declaration that is false or misleading
(a false declaration);
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, examine an article which the person has with him or her if any of
the following paragraphs applies:
(c) the person is about to leave Australia;
(d) the person has arrived in Australia;
(e) the person is about to board or
leave a ship or aircraft;
(f) the person has boarded or left a
ship or aircraft;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments in respect of which a false
declaration has been made.
(5) If:
(a) a police officer or a customs
officer has asked a person to make a declaration under subsection (1) or
(2); and
(b) the person refuses or fails to
make the declaration;
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, examine an article which the person has with him or her if any of
the following paragraphs applies:
(c) the person is about to leave Australia;
(d) the person has arrived in Australia;
(e) the person is about to board or
leave a ship or aircraft;
(f) the person has boarded or left a
ship or aircraft;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments.
(6) If:
(a) a police officer or a customs
officer has asked a person to produce a bearer negotiable instrument under
subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person refuses or fails to
produce the bearer negotiable instrument;
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, examine an article which the person has with him or her if any of
the following paragraphs applies:
(c) the person is about to leave Australia;
(d) the person has arrived in Australia;
(e) the person is about to board or
leave a ship or aircraft;
(f) the person has boarded or left a
ship or aircraft;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments.
(7) If:
(a) either:
(i) a police officer; or
(ii) a customs officer in
respect of whom a declaration under section 219ZA of the Customs Act
1901 is in force;
has asked a person to make a
declaration under subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that the person has made a declaration that is false or misleading (a
false declaration);
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, search the person if:
(c) any of the following subparagraphs
applies:
(i) the person is about to
leave Australia;
(ii) the person has arrived
in Australia;
(iii) the person is about to
board or leave a ship or aircraft;
(iv) the person has boarded
or left a ship or aircraft; and
(d) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that there is on the person, or in clothing being worn by the
person, a bearer negotiable instrument in respect of which a false declaration
has been made;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments in respect of which a false
declaration has been made.
(8) If:
(a) either:
(i) a police officer; or
(ii) a customs officer in
respect of whom a declaration under section 219ZA of the Customs Act
1901 is in force;
has asked a person to make a
declaration under subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person refuses or fails to
make the declaration;
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, search the person if:
(c) any of the following subparagraphs
applies:
(i) the person is about to
leave Australia;
(ii) the person has arrived
in Australia;
(iii) the person is about to
board or leave a ship or aircraft;
(iv) the person has boarded
or left a ship or aircraft; and
(d) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that there is on the person, or in clothing being worn by the
person, a bearer negotiable instrument;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments.
(9) If:
(a) either:
(i) a police officer; or
(ii) a customs officer in
respect of whom a declaration under section 219ZA of the Customs Act
1901 is in force;
has asked a person to produce a
bearer negotiable instrument under subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person refuses or fails to
produce the bearer negotiable instrument;
the officer may, with such assistance as is reasonable and
necessary, search the person if:
(c) any of the following subparagraphs
applies:
(i) the person is about to
leave Australia;
(ii) the person has arrived
in Australia;
(iii) the person is about to
board or leave a ship or aircraft;
(iv) the person has boarded
or left a ship or aircraft; and
(d) the officer has reasonable grounds
to suspect that there is on the person, or in clothing being worn by the
person, a bearer negotiable instrument;
for the purpose of finding out whether the person has with
him or her any bearer negotiable instruments.
(10) A person must not be searched under
subsection (7), (8) or (9) except by a person of the same sex.
Officer may conduct searches on board a ship or
aircraft
(11) A police officer or a customs officer, and
any person assisting the officer, may:
(a) board any ship or aircraft; or
(b) go onto or enter any eligible
place;
for the purpose of exercising the powers conferred by
subsection (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8) or (9).
Officer may seize bearer negotiable instruments
(12) If:
(a) in the course of an examination or
search under subsection (4), (5), (6), (7), (8) or (9), a police officer
or a customs officer finds a bearer negotiable instrument; and
(b) the person:
(i) has made a declaration
under subsection (1) or (2) that is false or misleading; or
(ii) has refused or failed
to make a declaration under subsection (1) or (2); or
(iii) has refused or failed
to produce a bearer negotiable instrument under subsection (1) or (2);
the officer may seize the instrument.
(13) If:
(a) a person produces a bearer
negotiable instrument to a police officer or a customs officer under
subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person has made a declaration
under subsection (1) or (2) that is false or misleading;
the officer may seize the instrument.
Offence
(14) A person
commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection (1) or (2); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty for contravention of this subsection: Imprisonment for
1 year or 60 penalty units, or both.
201
Arrest without warrant
(1) If a police officer or a customs officer
has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed an offence
against subsection 53(1) or 59(3), the officer may arrest the person without
warrant.
(2) If a police officer or a customs officer
has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has assaulted any police
officer or customs officer in the execution of that officer’s duties under this
Division, the first‑mentioned officer may arrest the person without warrant.
(3) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person engages in conduct; and
(b) the conduct resists, obstructs or
prevents the arrest of a person under this section.
Penalty: 10 penalty units.
(4) Subsection (3) does not apply if the
person has a reasonable excuse.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (4) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
Division 9—Notices to reporting entities
202
Notices to reporting entities
(1) Each of the following persons is
authorised to give notices under this section:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO;
(b) an authorised officer;
(c) the Commissioner of the Australian
Federal Police;
(d) a Deputy Commissioner of the
Australian Federal Police;
(e) a senior executive AFP employee
(within the meaning of the Australian Federal Police Act 1979) who is:
(i) a member of the
Australian Federal Police; and
(ii) authorised in writing
by the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police for the purposes of this
section;
(f) the Chief Executive Officer of
the Australian Crime Commission;
(g) an examiner of the Australian
Crime Commission;
(h) an approved examiner (within the
meaning of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002).
(2) If a person authorised by
subsection (1) believes on reasonable grounds that another person is a
reporting entity, the authorised person may give a written notice to the other
person requiring the other person to give the authorised person any
information, or produce to the authorised person any documents, relevant to any
or all of the following:
(a) determining whether the other
person provides designated services at or through a permanent establishment of
the other person in Australia;
(b) ascertaining details relating to
any permanent establishment in Australia at or through which the other person
provides designated services;
(c) ascertaining details relating to
designated services provided by the other person at or through a permanent
establishment of the other person in Australia.
(3) A person must not give a notice under
subsection (2) unless the person reasonably believes that giving the
notice is required:
(a) to determine whether to take any
action under this Act; or
(b) in relation to proceedings under
this Act.
(4) A person must comply with a notice given
to the person under subsection (2).
203
Contents of notices to reporting entities
A notice given by a person to another
person under subsection 202(2) must:
(a) state that the first‑mentioned
person believes that the notice is required:
(i) to determine whether
to take any action under this Act; or
(ii) in relation to
proceedings under this Act;
(as the case requires); and
(b) specify the name of the other person;
and
(c) specify the kind of information or
documents required to be given or produced; and
(d) specify the form and manner in
which that information or those documents are to be given or produced; and
(e) state that the information or
documents must be given or produced within 14 days after the notice is given;
and
(f) set out the effect of
section 204 (breaching a requirement under a notice); and
(g) if the notice specifies that
information about the notice must not be disclosed—set out the effect of
section 207 (disclosing existence or nature of a notice).
204
Breaching a notice requirement
A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is subject to a
requirement under subsection 202(4); and
(b) the person engages in conduct; and
(c) the person’s conduct breaches the
requirement.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 6 months or 30 penalty units, or
both.
205
Self‑incrimination
(1) A person is not excused from giving
information or producing a document under section 202 on the ground that
the information or the production of the document might tend to incriminate the
person or expose the person to a penalty.
(2) However:
(a) the information given or the
document produced; or
(b) giving the information or
producing the document;
is not admissible in evidence against the person:
(c) in civil proceedings other than:
(i) proceedings under this
Act; or
(ii) proceedings under the Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this Act; or
(d) in criminal proceedings other
than:
(i) proceedings for an
offence against this Act; or
(ii) proceedings for an
offence against the Criminal Code that relates to this Act.
206
Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal Code
If a
person, or an officer, employee or agent of a person, provides information
under a notice under subsection 202(2), the person, officer, employee or agent
is taken, for the purposes of Division 400 and Chapter 5 of the Criminal
Code, not to have been in possession of that information at any time.
207
Disclosing existence or nature of notice
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person is given a notice under
subsection 202(2); and
(b) the notice specifies that
information about the notice must not be disclosed; and
(c) the person discloses the existence
or nature of the notice.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 2 years or 120 penalty units, or
both.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if the disclosure is to a legal
practitioner (however described) for the purpose of obtaining legal advice.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (2) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to the
disclosure of information by a reporting entity if:
(a) the reporting entity is a member
of a designated business group; and
(b) the disclosure is made to another
member of the designated business group.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matter in subsection (3) (see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code).
Part 16—Administration
Division 1—Introduction
208
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• AUSTRAC
is continued in existence.
• There
is to be a Chief Executive Officer of AUSTRAC.
• The
AUSTRAC CEO’s functions include the compilation and analysis of eligible
collected information.
• The
AUSTRAC CEO may make AML/CTF Rules.
Division 2—Establishment and function of AUSTRAC
209
Establishment of AUSTRAC
(1) The Australian Transaction Reports and
Analysis Centre established under the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988
continues in existence by force of this subsection, under and subject to the
provisions of this Act.
(2) The Australian Transaction Reports and
Analysis Centre may also be known as AUSTRAC.
(3) AUSTRAC consists of:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO; and
(b) the staff of AUSTRAC.
Note: AUSTRAC does not have a legal identity
separate from the Commonwealth.
210
Function of AUSTRAC
The function of AUSTRAC is to assist the
AUSTRAC CEO in the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions.
Division 3—Chief Executive Officer of AUSTRAC
Subdivision A—Office and functions of the AUSTRAC CEO
211
AUSTRAC CEO
(1) There is to be a Chief Executive Officer
of AUSTRAC.
(2) The Chief Executive Officer of AUSTRAC
may also be known as the AUSTRAC CEO.
(3) The office of Chief Executive Officer of
AUSTRAC is, for all purposes, a continuation under that name of the office of
Director of AUSTRAC established under the Financial Transaction Reports Act
1988.
(4) To avoid doubt, a reference in a law of
the Commonwealth to the AUSTRAC CEO must, in relation to matters that occurred
before the commencement of this section, be construed as a reference to the
Director of AUSTRAC.
Note: See also section 25B of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
212
Functions of the AUSTRAC CEO
(1) The functions of the AUSTRAC CEO are:
(a) to retain, compile, analyse and
disseminate eligible collected information; and
(b) to provide advice and assistance,
in relation to AUSTRAC information, to the persons and agencies who are
entitled or authorised to access AUSTRAC information under Part 11; and
(c) to advise and assist reporting
entities in relation to their obligations under this Act, the regulations and
the AML/CTF Rules; and
(d) to advise and assist the
representatives of reporting entities in relation to compliance by reporting
entities with this Act, the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules; and
(e) to promote compliance with this
Act, the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules; and
(f) such other functions as are
conferred on the AUSTRAC CEO by or under:
(i) this Act; or
(ii) the regulations; or
(iii) any other law of the
Commonwealth.
Note: The AUSTRAC CEO’s other functions include:
(a) monitoring compliance with this Act, the
regulations and the AML/CTF Rules (see section 190); and
(b) making AML/CTF Rules (see section 229).
(2) In performing the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions, the AUSTRAC CEO must:
(a) consult with the following:
(i) reporting entities or
the representatives of reporting entities;
(ii) the Commissioner of
the Australian Federal Police;
(iii) the Chief Executive
Officer of the Australian Crime Commission;
(iv) the Commissioner of
Taxation;
(v) the Chief Executive
Officer of Customs;
(vi) the Information
Commissioner in relation to matters that relate to the privacy functions
(within the meaning of the Australian Information Commissioner Act 2010);
and
(b) take into account any comments
made in the course of those consultations.
(3) In performing the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions
under this Act, the AUSTRAC CEO must have regard to the following:
(a) the integrity of the financial
system;
(b) crime reduction;
(c) the desirability of ensuring that
regulatory considerations are addressed in a way that does not impose
unnecessary financial and administrative burdens on reporting entities;
(d) the desirability of adopting a
risk‑based approach;
(e) competitive neutrality;
(f) competition;
(g) economic efficiency;
(h) privacy;
(i) such other matters (if any) as
the AUSTRAC CEO considers relevant.
(4) In performing the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions
under this Act, the AUSTRAC CEO must have regard to:
(a) any relevant FATF Recommendations;
and
(b) any relevant Conventions mentioned
in subsection 3(3); and
(c) any relevant Resolutions mentioned
in subsection 3(3).
(5) Any failure to comply with the
requirements of subsection (2), (3) or (4) in relation to the performance
of a function of the AUSTRAC CEO does not affect the validity of the
performance of the function.
(6) Subsection (5) does not apply in
determining the constitutional validity of the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions.
213
Policy principles
(1) The Minister may give written policy
principles to the AUSTRAC CEO about the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions.
(2) The Minister must cause a copy of the
policy principles to be tabled in each House of the Parliament within 15
sitting days of that House after the day on which they were given to the
AUSTRAC CEO.
(3) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with the
policy principles (if any) when performing the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions.
(4) Policy principles are not legislative
instruments.
Subdivision B—Appointment of the AUSTRAC CEO etc.
214
Appointment of the AUSTRAC CEO etc.
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO is to be appointed by the
Minister by written instrument.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO is to be appointed on a
full‑time basis.
(3) The AUSTRAC CEO holds office for the
period specified in the instrument of appointment. The period must not exceed 5
years.
Note: For re‑appointment, see subsection 33(4A) of
the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
215
Remuneration and allowances of the AUSTRAC CEO
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO is to be paid the
remuneration that is determined by the Remuneration Tribunal. If no
determination of that remuneration by the Tribunal is in operation, the AUSTRAC
CEO is to be paid the remuneration that is determined by the Minister.
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO is to be paid the
allowances that are prescribed.
(3) This section has effect subject to the Remuneration
Tribunal Act 1973.
216
Leave of absence of the AUSTRAC CEO
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO has the recreation leave
entitlements that are determined by the Remuneration Tribunal.
(2) The Minister may grant the AUSTRAC CEO
leave of absence, other than recreation leave, on the terms and conditions as
to remuneration or otherwise that the Minister determines.
217
Resignation of the AUSTRAC CEO
The AUSTRAC CEO may resign his or her
appointment by giving the Minister a written resignation.
218
Notification of possible conflict of interest by the AUSTRAC CEO
Immediately after the AUSTRAC CEO:
(a) acquires any interest, pecuniary
or otherwise, that could conflict with the proper performance of his or her
duties; or
(b) becomes aware that any interest,
pecuniary or otherwise, that:
(i) he or she has; or
(ii) he or she is likely to
acquire;
could conflict with the proper
performance of his or her duties;
the AUSTRAC CEO must notify the Minister, in writing, of
that interest.
219
Termination of the AUSTRAC CEO’s appointment
Termination
(1) The Minister may terminate the
appointment of the AUSTRAC CEO for misbehaviour or physical or mental
incapacity.
(2) The Minister may terminate the
appointment of the AUSTRAC CEO if:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO:
(i) becomes bankrupt; or
(ii) applies to take the
benefit of any law for the relief of bankrupt or insolvent debtors; or
(iii) compounds with his or
her creditors; or
(iv) makes an assignment of
his or her remuneration for the benefit of his or her creditors; or
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO is absent from
duty, except on leave of absence, for 14 consecutive days or for 28 days in any
12 months; or
(c) the AUSTRAC CEO engages, except
with the Minister’s approval, in paid employment outside the duties of his or
her office; or
(d) the AUSTRAC CEO fails, without
reasonable excuse, to comply with section 218; or
(e) the Minister is satisfied that the
performance of the AUSTRAC CEO has been unsatisfactory for a significant
period.
Conflict of interest
(3) If the Minister becomes aware, whether
because of a notification under section 218 or otherwise, that the AUSTRAC
CEO has an interest that could conflict with the proper performance of the
AUSTRAC CEO’s duties, the Minister must make a written determination either
that the interest does, or that it does not, pose a significant risk of a
conflict of interest.
(4) If the Minister determines that the
interest poses a significant risk, the Minister must require the AUSTRAC CEO to
dispose of that interest within a period specified by the Minister.
(5) If:
(a) the Minister requires the AUSTRAC
CEO to dispose of an interest; and
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO refuses or fails
to comply with that requirement;
the Minister must terminate the appointment of the AUSTRAC
CEO.
220
Other terms and conditions
The AUSTRAC CEO holds office on the
terms and conditions (if any) in relation to matters not covered by this Act
that are determined by the Minister.
221
Acting appointments
(1) The Minister may appoint a person to act
as the AUSTRAC CEO:
(a) during a vacancy in the office of
AUSTRAC CEO (whether or not an appointment has previously been made to the
office); or
(b) during any period, or during all
periods, when the AUSTRAC CEO is absent from duty or from Australia, or is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office.
(2) Anything done by or in relation to a
person purporting to act under an appointment is not invalid merely because:
(a) the occasion for the appointment
had not arisen; or
(b) there was a defect or irregularity
in connection with the appointment; or
(c) the appointment had ceased to have
effect; or
(d) the occasion to act had not arisen
or had ceased.
Note: See section 33A of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
222
Delegation by the AUSTRAC CEO
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by writing, delegate
any or all of his or her functions or powers to a member of the staff of
AUSTRAC.
Note: For variation and revocation, see subsection
33(3) of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) In performing functions and exercising
powers under the delegation, the delegate must comply with any directions of
the AUSTRAC CEO.
Note: See sections 34AA to 34A of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
223
Secretary may require the AUSTRAC CEO to give information
Information
(1) The Secretary may, by written notice
given to the AUSTRAC CEO, require the AUSTRAC CEO to:
(a) prepare a document setting out
specified information relating to the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions; and
(b) give a copy of the document to the
Secretary within the period specified in the notice.
Compliance with requirement
(2) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with a
requirement under subsection (1).
Division 4—Staff of AUSTRAC etc.
224
Staff of AUSTRAC
(1) The staff of AUSTRAC are persons engaged
under the Public Service Act 1999.
(2) For the purposes of the Public Service
Act 1999:
(a) the AUSTRAC CEO and the staff of
AUSTRAC together constitute a Statutory Agency; and
(b) the AUSTRAC CEO is the Head of
that Statutory Agency.
225
Consultants and persons seconded to AUSTRAC
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, on behalf of the
Commonwealth, engage consultants to perform services for AUSTRAC in connection
with the performance of any of the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions.
(2) The terms and conditions of engagement of
persons engaged under subsection (1) are such as the AUSTRAC CEO
determines in writing.
(3) The AUSTRAC CEO may also be assisted:
(a) by officers and employees of
Agencies (within the meaning of the Public Service Act 1999); or
(b) by officers and employees of
authorities of the Commonwealth; or
(c) by members of the Australian
Federal Police; or
(d) by officers and employees of a
State or Territory; or
(e) by officers and employees of
authorities of a State or Territory; or
(f) by members of the police force or
police service of a State or Territory;
whose services are made available to the AUSTRAC CEO in
connection with the performance of any of the AUSTRAC CEO’s functions.
Division 5—Reports and information
226
Annual report
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO must, as soon as
practicable after 30 June in each year, prepare and give to the Minister a
report of the AUSTRAC CEO’s operations during the year ending on that
30 June.
Note: See also section 34C of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) The Minister must cause a copy of each
report under this section to be tabled in each House of the Parliament within
15 sitting days of that House after receiving the report.
227
Minister may require the AUSTRAC CEO to prepare reports or give information
Reports
(1) The Minister may, by written notice given
to the AUSTRAC CEO, require the AUSTRAC CEO:
(a) to prepare a report about one or
more specified matters relating to the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions; and
(b) give a copy of the report to the
Minister within the period specified in the notice.
Information
(2) The Minister may, by written notice given
to the AUSTRAC CEO, require the AUSTRAC CEO to:
(a) prepare a document setting out
specified information relating to the performance of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions; and
(b) give a copy of the document to the
Minister within the period specified in the notice.
Compliance
(3) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with a
requirement under subsection (1) or (2).
Division 6—Directions by Minister
228
Directions by Minister
(1) The Minister may give the AUSTRAC CEO a
written direction about policies the AUSTRAC CEO should pursue, or priorities
the AUSTRAC CEO should follow, in performing any of the AUSTRAC CEO’s
functions.
(2) The Minister must not give a direction
under subsection (1) about a particular case.
(3) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with a
direction under subsection (1).
(4) A direction under subsection (1) is
not a legislative instrument.
(5) The Minister must cause a copy of each
direction under subsection (1) to be tabled in each House of the Parliament
within 15 sitting days of that House after giving the direction.
Division 7—AML/CTF Rules
229
AML/CTF Rules
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by writing, make
rules (the AML/CTF Rules) prescribing matters required or
permitted by any other provision of this Act to be prescribed by the AML/CTF
Rules.
Note 1: AML/CTF Rules is short for Anti‑Money
Laundering/Counter‑Terrorism Financing Rules.
Note 2: For amendment and repeal, see subsection 33(3)
of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.
(2) AML/CTF Rules are legislative
instruments.
Ministerial directions with respect to the making of
AML/CTF Rules
(3) The Minister may give the AUSTRAC CEO a
written direction about the exercise of the powers conferred on the AUSTRAC CEO
by subsection (1).
(4) The AUSTRAC CEO must comply with a
direction under subsection (3).
Part 17—Vicarious liability
230
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• This Part deals with the
proof of matters that involve employees, agents etc.
231
Criminal liability of corporations
Part 2.5 of the Criminal Code
has effect, in relation to an offence against this Act, as if each reference in
that Part to a body corporate were a reference to a corporation.
232
Civil liability of corporations
State of mind
(1) If, in a civil proceeding under, or
arising out of, this Act in respect of conduct engaged in by a corporation, it
is necessary to establish the state of mind of the corporation, it is
sufficient to show that:
(a) a director, employee or agent of
the corporation engaged in that conduct; and
(b) the director, employee or agent
was, in engaging in that conduct, acting within the scope of his or her actual
or apparent authority; and
(c) the director, employee or agent
had that state of mind.
Conduct
(2) If:
(a) conduct is engaged in on behalf of
a corporation by a director, employee or agent of the corporation; and
(b) the conduct is within the scope of
his or her actual or apparent authority;
the conduct is taken, for the purposes of a civil
proceeding under, or arising out of, this Act, to have been engaged in by the
corporation unless the corporation proves that it took reasonable precautions
and exercised due diligence to avoid the conduct.
233
Liability of persons other than corporations
State of mind
(1) If, in criminal or civil proceedings
under, or arising out of, this Act in respect of conduct engaged in by a person
other than a corporation, it is necessary to establish the state of mind of the
person, it is sufficient to show that:
(a) the conduct was engaged in by an
employee or agent of the person within the scope of his or her actual or
apparent authority; and
(b) the employee or agent had that
state of mind.
Conduct
(2) If:
(a) conduct is engaged in on behalf of
a person other than a corporation by an employee or agent of the person; and
(b) the conduct is within the
employee’s or agent’s actual or apparent authority;
the conduct is taken, for the purposes of criminal or
civil proceedings under, or arising out of, this Act, to have been engaged in
by the person unless the person proves that the person took reasonable
precautions and exercised due diligence to avoid the conduct.
Limitation on imprisonment
(3) Despite any other provision of this Act,
if:
(a) a person is convicted of an offence;
and
(b) the person would not have been
convicted of the offence if subsections (1) and (2) had not been in force;
the person is not liable to be punished by imprisonment
for that offence.
Part 18—Miscellaneous
234
Simplified outline
The following is a simplified outline of
this Part:
• Proceedings do not lie
against a person in relation to anything done, or omitted to be done, in
compliance, or in purported compliance, with a requirement under this Act, the
regulations or the AML/CTF Rules.
• In proceedings for a
contravention of this Act or the regulations, it is a defence if the defendant
proves that the defendant took reasonable precautions, and exercised due
diligence, to avoid the contravention.
• Partnerships, trusts and
unincorporated associations are to be treated as persons for the purposes of
this Act.
• This Act is not intended to
affect the concurrent operation of State and Territory laws.
• This Act does not affect
the law relating to legal professional privilege.
• A contravention of this Act
does not affect the validity of any transaction.
• Provision is made in
relation to the making of reports to the AUSTRAC CEO etc.
• Provision is made in
relation to the performance of non‑judicial functions by magistrates.
• This Act does not apply to
a designated service specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
• The AUSTRAC CEO may exempt
a person from this Act, or modify the application of this Act to a person.
• There is to be a review of
the operation of this Act.
• The Governor‑General may
make regulations for the purposes of this Act.
235
Protection from liability
(1) An action, suit or proceeding (whether
criminal or civil) does not lie against:
(a) a person (the first person);
or
(b) an officer, employee or agent of
the first person acting in the course of his or her office, employment or
agency;
in relation to anything done, or omitted to be done, in
good faith by the first person, officer, employee or agent:
(c) in carrying out an applicable
customer identification procedure under this Act; or
(d) in fulfilment, or purported
fulfilment, of a requirement under this Act not to commence to provide a
designated service, or not to continue to provide a designated service; or
(e) in compliance, or in purported
compliance, with any other requirement under:
(i) this Act; or
(ii) the regulations; or
(iii) the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the
following proceedings:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against this Act or the regulations;
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of a civil penalty provision;
(c) proceedings under the Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this Act.
236
Defence of taking reasonable precautions, and exercising due diligence, to
avoid a contravention
Scope
(1) This section applies to the following
proceedings:
(a) criminal proceedings for an
offence against the regulations;
(b) section 175 proceedings for a
contravention of a civil penalty provision;
(c) proceedings under the Proceeds
of Crime Act 2002 that relate to this Act.
Defence
(2) In the proceedings, it is a defence if
the defendant proves that the defendant took reasonable precautions, and
exercised due diligence, to avoid the contravention in respect of which the
proceedings were instituted.
Note: In criminal proceedings, a defendant bears a
legal burden in relation to the matters in subsection (2)—see
section 13.4 of the Criminal Code.
237
Treatment of partnerships
(1) This Act applies to a partnership as if
it were a person, but with the changes set out in this section.
(2) An obligation that would otherwise be
imposed on the partnership by this Act is imposed on each partner instead, but
may be discharged by any of the partners.
(3) An offence against this Act that would
otherwise be committed by the partnership is taken to have been committed by
each partner.
(4) A partner does not commit an offence
because of subsection (3) if the partner:
(a) does not know of the circumstances
that constitute the contravention of the provision concerned; or
(b) knows of those circumstances but
takes all reasonable steps to correct the contravention as soon as possible
after the partner becomes aware of those circumstances.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matters in subsection (4)—see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code.
(5) This section applies to a breach of a
civil penalty provision in a corresponding way to the way in which it applies
to an offence.
238
Treatment of unincorporated associations
(1) This Act applies to an unincorporated
association as if it were a person, but with the changes set out in this
section.
(2) An obligation that would otherwise be
imposed on the association by this Act is imposed on each member of the
association’s committee of management instead, but may be discharged by any of
the members.
(3) An offence against this Act that would
otherwise be committed by the association is taken to have been committed by
each member of the association’s committee of management.
(4) A member of the association’s committee
of management does not commit an offence because of subsection (3) if the
member:
(a) does not know of the circumstances
that constitute the contravention of the provision concerned; or
(b) knows of those circumstances but
takes all reasonable steps to correct the contravention as soon as possible
after the member becomes aware of those circumstances.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matters in subsection (4)—see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code.
(5) This section applies to a breach of a
civil penalty provision in a corresponding way to the way in which it applies
to an offence.
239
Treatment of trusts with multiple trustees
(1) If a trust has 2 or more trustees, this
Act applies to the trust as if it were a person, but with the changes set out
in this section.
Note: A trust is a person for the purposes of this
Act (see the definition of person in section 5).
(2) An obligation that would otherwise be
imposed on the trust by this Act is imposed on each trustee instead, but may be
discharged by any of the trustees.
(3) An offence against this Act that would
otherwise be committed by the trust is taken to have been committed by each
trustee.
(4) A trustee
does not commit an offence because of subsection (3) if the trustee:
(a) does
not know of the circumstances that constitute the contravention of the
provision concerned; or
(b) knows of those circumstances but
takes all reasonable steps to correct the contravention as soon as possible
after the trustee becomes aware of those circumstances.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in
relation to the matters in subsection (4)—see subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal
Code.
(5) This section applies to a breach of a
civil penalty provision in a corresponding way to the way in which it applies
to an offence.
240
Concurrent operation of State and Territory laws
This Act is not intended to exclude or
limit the operation of a law of a State or Territory that is capable of
operating concurrently with this Act.
241 Act
not to limit other powers
(1) This Act does not limit any power that a
person has, under any other law, to obtain information.
(2) This Act does not limit any power that a
customs officer or police officer has under any other law.
242
Law relating to legal professional privilege not affected
This Act does not affect the law
relating to legal professional privilege.
243
Validity of transactions
A contravention of this Act, the
regulations or the AML/CTF Rules does not affect the validity of any transaction.
244
Reports to the AUSTRAC CEO etc.
(1) A report
to the AUSTRAC CEO by a person under this Act, or a report to a customs officer
or a police officer by a person under section 53, 55 or 59, must be:
(a) signed by the person; or
(b) otherwise authenticated by the
person in an approved way.
(2) A report to the AUSTRAC CEO by a person
under this Act must be given to the AUSTRAC CEO:
(a) in the manner set out in
section 28A of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901; or
(b) in such other manner and form as
is approved in relation to the person or to a class of persons that includes
the person.
(3) This section does not affect the
operation of the Electronic Transactions Act 1999.
245
Arrangements with Governors of States etc.
States
(1) The Governor‑General may make
arrangements with the Governor of a State with respect to the administration of
this Act, including arrangements for the performance of the functions of a
magistrate under this Act by a magistrate of that State.
(2) The Governor‑General may arrange with the
Governor of a State with whom an arrangement is in force under
subsection (1) for the variation or revocation of the arrangement.
Australian Capital Territory
(3) The Governor‑General may make
arrangements with the Chief Minister of the Australian Capital Territory with
respect to the administration of this Act, including arrangements for the
performance of the functions of a magistrate under this Act by a magistrate of
the Australian Capital Territory.
(4) The Governor‑General may arrange with the
Chief Minister of the Australian Capital Territory for the variation or
revocation of an arrangement in force under subsection (3).
Northern Territory
(5) The Governor‑General may make
arrangements with the Administrator of the Northern Territory with respect to
the administration of this Act, including arrangements for the performance of
the functions of a magistrate under this Act by a magistrate of the Northern Territory.
(6) The Governor‑General may arrange with the
Administrator of the Northern Territory for the variation or revocation of an
arrangement in force under subsection (5).
Norfolk Island
(7) The Governor‑General may make
arrangements with the Administrator of Norfolk Island with respect to the
administration of this Act, including arrangements for the performance of the
functions of a magistrate under this Act by a magistrate of Norfolk Island.
(8) The Governor‑General may arrange with the
Administrator of Norfolk Island for the variation or revocation of an
arrangement in force under subsection (7).
(9) A copy of each instrument by which an
arrangement under this section is made, varied or revoked is to be published in
the Gazette.
Legislative Instruments Act
(10) An instrument by which an arrangement
under this section is made, varied or revoked is not a legislative instrument.
246
This Act does not limit other information‑gathering powers
This Act does not limit:
(a) any power conferred on the
Commissioner of Taxation, by any other law, to obtain information; or
(b) any power conferred on any other
person or body, by any other law, to obtain information.
247
General exemptions
(1) This Act does not apply to a designated
service that is of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Act does not apply to a designated service that is
of a kind specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(3) This Act does not apply to a designated
service that is provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
(4) The AML/CTF Rules may provide that a
specified provision of this Act does not apply to a designated service that is
provided in circumstances specified in the AML/CTF Rules.
248
Exemptions and modifications by the AUSTRAC CEO
(1) The AUSTRAC CEO may, by written
instrument:
(a) exempt a specified person from one
or more specified provisions of this Act; or
(b) declare that this Act applies in
relation to a specified person as if one or more specified provisions of this
Act were modified as specified in the declaration.
(2) An exemption may apply:
(a) unconditionally; or
(b) subject to specified conditions.
(3) A person to whom a condition specified in
an exemption applies must comply with the condition.
(4) Subsection (3) is a civil penalty
provision.
(5) A copy of an exemption or declaration
must be made available on AUSTRAC’s website.
(6) If conduct engaged in by a person would
not have constituted:
(a) an offence; or
(b) a contravention of a civil penalty
provision:
if a particular declaration under paragraph (1)(b)
had not been made, that conduct does not constitute an offence or a
contravention of a civil penalty provision unless, before the conduct occurred:
(c) a copy of the declaration was made
available on AUSTRAC’s website; or
(d) the AUSTRAC CEO gave the person a
copy of the declaration.
In a prosecution for an offence to which this subsection
applies, the prosecution must prove that paragraph (c) or (d) was complied
with before the conduct occurred.
(7) An instrument under subsection (1)
is not a legislative instrument.
249
Specification by class
To avoid doubt, a reference in this Act
to a class or kind of matter or thing does not, by implication, affect the
application of:
(a) subsection 13(3) of the Legislative
Instruments Act 2003; or
(b) subsection 46(3) of the Acts
Interpretation Act 1901.
250
Schedule 1 (alternative constitutional basis)
Schedule 1 has effect.
251
Review of operation of Act
(1) Before the end of the period of 7 years
after the commencement of this section, the Minister must cause to be conducted
a review of the operation of this Act, the regulations and the AML/CTF Rules.
(2) The Minister must cause to be prepared a
report of the review under subsection (1).
(3) The Minister must cause copies of the
report to be tabled in each House of the Parliament within 15 sittings days of
that House after the completion of the preparation of the report.
252
Regulations
(1) The Governor‑General may make regulations
prescribing matters:
(a) required or permitted to be prescribed
by this Act; or
(b) necessary or convenient to be
prescribed for carrying out or giving effect to this Act.
Penalties
(2) The regulations may prescribe penalties
for offences against the regulations. A penalty must not be more than 50
penalty units.
Fees
(3) The regulations may make provision for
and in relation to fees payable in respect of the performance of a function, or
the exercise of a power, by the AUSTRAC CEO.
(4) A fee must not be such as to amount to
taxation.
(5) A fee is payable to the Commonwealth.