1 Name of Regulations [see Note 1]
These Regulations are the Customs (Prohibited
Imports) Regulations 1956.
2 Interpretation
(1) In these Regulations, unless the
contrary intention appears:
amphibole asbestos means asbestos in a form
other than chrysotile.
asbestos means any of the following fibrous
forms of mineral silicates belonging to the serpentine or amphibole groups of
rock‑forming minerals:
(a) actinolite asbestos;
(b) amosite (brown asbestos);
(c) anthophyllite asbestos;
(d) chrysotile (white asbestos);
(e) crocidolite (blue asbestos);
(f) tremolite asbestos.
Australian Standard means a standard approved
for publication on behalf of the Council of the Standards Association of
Australia, being the association of that name incorporated by Royal Charter.
Australian Wool Exchange means the Australian
Wool Exchange Limited ACN 061 495 565.
Australian Wool Exchange Standard means a
standard published by the Australian Wool Exchange.
Australian Wool Research and Promotion Organisation
Standard means a standard published by the Australian Wool Research and
Promotion Organisation.
British Standard means a standard issued by
the British Standards Institution established under Royal Charter.
CFC means a chlorofluorocarbon mentioned in
Part 1 of Schedule 10, whether existing alone or in a mixture.
component of ammunition has the meaning given
in subregulation 4F (4).
firearm has the meaning given in
subregulation 4F (4).
firearm accessory has the meaning given in
subregulation 4F (4).
firearm magazine has the meaning given in
subregulation 4F (4).
firearm part has the meaning given in
subregulation 4F (4).
flash point means the temperature at which
petroleum and shale products (including kerosene) give off an inflammable vapor
upon being tested by the Abel Pensky closed test apparatus.
HCFC means a hydrochlorofluorocarbon
mentioned in Part 5 of Schedule 10, whether existing alone or in a
mixture.
HFC means a substance mentioned in
Part 9 of Schedule 10, whether existing alone or in a mixture.
Note HFC is short for hydrofluorocarbon.
human embryo clone has the meaning given by
section 8 of the Prohibition of Human Cloning Act 2002.
IUPAC name means a designation attributed to
a chemical by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry, being a
designation contained in International Standard ISO 1750 — 1981:
Pesticides and Agrochemicals — Common Names, Published at Geneva by the
International Standards Organisation in 1981.
kava means a plant of the species Piper
methysticum or a preparation obtained from the plant or part of the plant.
PFC means a substance mentioned in
Part 10 of Schedule 10, whether existing alone or in a mixture.
Note PFC is short for perfluorocarbon.
poppy straw means any part (other than the
seeds) of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum).
replica has the meaning given in
subregulation 4F (4).
security sensitive
ammonium nitrate means any of the following:
(a) ammonium
nitrate;
(b) an emulsion that is made up of more than
45 per cent ammonium nitrate;
(c) a mixture that is made up of more than
45 per cent ammonium nitrate;
but does not include ammonium nitrate in solution.
SGG means an HFC or a PFC.
Note 1 SGG is short for synthetic greenhouse
gas.
Note 2 This definition is the same
in substance as the definition of SGG in the Ozone Protection
and Synthetic Greenhouse Gas Management Act 1989.
the Act means the Customs Act 1901.
therapeutic substance means a substance,
including a mixture or compound of substances, that has a therapeutic use and
includes a surgical ligature, suture or dressing, but does not include a
vaccine prepared from microscopic organisms from the body of a person or animal
for use in the treatment of that person or animal only.
therapeutic use means a use for the purpose
of:
(a) the preventing, diagnosing, curing or
alleviating of a disease, ailment, defect or injury in persons or animals;
(b) the influencing, inhibiting or modifying of a
physiological process in persons or animals; or
(c) the testing of the susceptibility of persons
or animals to a disease or ailment.
(2) For the purposes of regulations 5A and
5F:
(a) each form of a therapeutic substance shall
be taken to be a separate and distinct therapeutic substance;
(b) if a therapeutic substance is manufactured
according to two or more formulations — the substance manufactured
according to a particular formulation shall be taken to be a different
therapeutic substance from the substance manufactured according to the other or
each other formulation; and
(c) a therapeutic substance having a particular
strength shall be taken to be a different therapeutic substance from the
substance having a different strength.
(3) For the
purposes of these Regulations:
(a) a reference to a British Standard published
on a date specified in these Regulations shall be read as a reference to such
British Standard published by the British Standards Institution on that date;
and
(b) where a British Standard refers to another
instrument, that instrument shall be deemed to be incorporated with, and form
part of, the British Standard.
(4) For the purposes of these Regulations:
(a) a reference to an Australian Standard, or a
Part of an Australian Standard, published on a date specified in these
Regulations shall be read as a reference to the Australian Standard, or the
Part of an Australian Standard, as the case requires, approved for publication
on that date; and
(b) where an Australian Standard refers to
another instrument, that instrument shall be deemed to be incorporated with,
and form part of, the Australian Standard.
(5) For the purposes of these Regulations:
(a) a reference to an Australian Wool Exchange
Standard published on a date specified in these Regulations is taken to include
a reference to the Australian Wool Exchange Standard approved for publication
on that date; and
(b) if an Australian Wool Exchange Standard
refers to another instrument, that instrument is taken to be incorporated with,
and form part of, the Australian Wool Exchange Standard.
viable material means living tissue and
cells.
3 Goods
the importation of which is prohibited absolutely
(1) The importation of goods specified in
Schedule 1 is prohibited absolutely.
3AA Importation
of devices and documents relating to suicide
(1) The importation of a device designed or customised
to be used by a person to commit suicide, or to be used by a person to assist
another person to commit suicide, is prohibited absolutely.
(2) The importation of the following documents is
prohibited absolutely:
(a) a document that promotes the use of a device
mentioned in subregulation (1);
(b) a document that counsels or incites
a person to commit suicide using one of those devices;
(c) a document that instructs a person how to
commit suicide using one of those devices.
3A Criteria
for the purposes of provisions of regulations 4 and 4F relating to defence
forces of certain overseas countries
The criteria in relation to goods mentioned in
subregulations 4 (1AAA) and 4F (2) are that the goods:
(a) are goods the owner of which is the defence
force of any of the following countries:
(i) Brunei Darussalam;
(ii) Canada;
(iii) Malaysia;
(iv) New Zealand;
(v) Papua New Guinea;
(vi) the Kingdom of Cambodia;
(vii) the Kingdom of Thailand;
(viii) the Republic of Fiji;
(ix) the Republic of Indonesia;
(x) the Republic of the Philippines;
(xi) the Republic of Singapore;
(xii) the United Kingdom;
(xiii) the United States of America;
(xiv) Tonga;
(xv) in
the case of goods:
(A) that are being imported
into Australia from East Timor; and
(B) that
have been used, or were intended for use, in East Timor for the purposes of an
operational multinational force established by a United Nations Security
Council Resolution for the purpose of directly providing aid to East Timor; and
(C) that are intended to be
exported from Australia to a country that is contributing to the force;
the country that is contributing
to the force;
(xvi) in
the case of goods:
(A) that are being imported
into Australia from a country that is contributing to an operational
multinational force established by a United Nations Security Council Resolution
for the purpose of directly providing aid to East Timor; and
(B) that are intended to be
exported to East Timor, and are intended for use for the purposes of the force;
the country that is contributing
to the force; and
(b) have been imported into Australia by:
(i) the defence force that is the
owner of the goods; or
(ii) a member of that defence force to
whom the goods have been issued.
3B Criteria for the purposes of provisions of
regulations 4 and 4F relating to police forces of certain overseas
countries
The criteria in relation to goods mentioned in
subregulations 4 (1AAB) and 4F (2A) are that the goods:
(a) are goods the
owner of which is:
(i) in
the case of goods:
(A) that are being imported
into Australia from East Timor; and
(B) that
have been used, or were intended for use, in East Timor for the purposes of an
operational multinational force established by a United Nations Security
Council Resolution for the purpose of directly providing aid to East Timor; and
(C) that are intended to be
exported from Australia to a country that is contributing to the force;
a police force of the country that
is contributing to the force; and
(ii) in the case of goods:
(A) that are being imported
into Australia from a country that is contributing to an operational
multinational force established by a United Nations Security Council Resolution
for the purpose of directly providing aid to East Timor; and
(B) that are intended to be
exported to East Timor, and are intended for use for the purposes of the force;
a police force of the country that
is contributing to the force; and
(b) have been imported into Australia by:
(i) the police force that is the owner
of the goods; or
(ii) a member of that police force to
whom the goods have been issued.
3C Criteria
for the purposes of provisions of regulations 4 and 4F relating to air
security officers
(1) The criteria for goods mentioned in subregulations
4 (1AAC) and (3) and 4F (2B) are that:
(a) the goods are imported into Australia on an
aircraft by an air security officer while carrying out his or her duties; and
(b) there is an
arrangement between the foreign government employing the air security officer
and the Government of Australia providing for the importation of the goods into
Australia on aircraft by air security officers; and
(c) immediately after the goods are imported,
the air security officer surrenders the goods to an authorised officer for
secure storage until the goods are exported in accordance with paragraph (d);
and
(d) within 3 months after the goods were imported
into Australia, they are exported from Australia.
(2) In this regulation:
air security officer means a person who is
employed and trained by a foreign government to travel on an aircraft to
provide security for the aircraft and its passengers and crew, but does not
include a person who is employed to provide exclusive personal protection for 1
or more specific people travelling on the aircraft (for example, personal
bodyguards).
authorised officer means an officer
authorised in writing by the CEO to be an authorised officer for this
regulation.
4 Goods
the importation of which is prohibited unless conditions or restrictions are
complied with
(1) Subject to subregulations (1AAA),
(1AAB) and (1AAC), the importation into Australia of the goods specified in
Schedule 2 is prohibited unless the permission in writing of the Minister or an
authorised person to import the goods has been granted.
(1AAA) Subregulation (1) does not apply to goods that:
(a) are specified in item 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 18D,
19, 19A, 21, 23 or 29A of Schedule 2; and
(b) meet the criteria set out in regulation 3A.
(1AAB) Also, subregulation (1) does not apply to goods that:
(a) are specified in item 29A of Schedule 2; and
(b) meet the criteria set out in regulation 3B.
(1AAC) Also, subregulation (1)
does not apply to goods that:
(a) are specified in item 9, 12, 13, 14, 18D,
19, 19A, 21, 23, 29A, 35, 36, 37, 38, 42 or 47 of Schedule 2; and
(b) meet the criteria mentioned in subregulation
3C (1).
(1AA) Where, in
relation to an application for a permission under subregulation (1), an
authorised person has formed an opinion that the permission should not be
granted, the authorised person is to refer the application to the Minister.
(1AB) Where an application has been referred to
the Minister in accordance with subregulation (1AA), the Minister may grant, or
refuse to grant, the permission.
(1AC) In subregulations (1) and (1AA), authorised
person means a person authorised in writing by the Minister for the
purposes of this subregulation.
(1A) A permission granted for the purposes of
subregulation (1) or (1AB) may specify conditions or requirements to be
complied with by the holder of the permission and may, in respect of any such
condition or requirement, specify the time, being a time either before or after
the importation of the goods to which the permission relates, at or before
which the condition or requirement is to be complied with by the holder of the
permission.
(2) The importation into Australia of the
goods specified in the second column of Schedule 3 is prohibited unless the
conditions, restrictions or requirements specified in the third column of that
Schedule opposite to the description of the goods are complied with.
(3) However, subregulation (2) does not apply to goods
that:
(a) are specified in item 1 or 1A of Schedule 3;
and
(b) meet the criteria mentioned in subregulation
3C (1).
4A Importation
of objectionable goods
(1) In this regulation, unless the
contrary intention appears:
computer game means a computer program and
associated data capable of generating a display on a computer monitor,
television screen, liquid crystal display or similar medium that allows the
playing of an interactive game.
computer generated
image means an image (including an image in the form of text) produced
by use of a computer on a computer monitor, television screen, liquid crystal
display or similar medium from electronically recorded data.
film includes a cinematograph film, a slide,
video tape and video disc and any other form of recording from which a visual
image, including a computer generated image, can be produced, but does not
include a computer game.
interactive game means a game in which the
way the game proceeds and the result achieved at various stages of the game is
determined in response to the decisions, inputs and direct involvement of the
player.
publication means any book, paper, magazine,
film, computer game or other written or pictorial matter.
terrorist act has the same meaning as in
section 100.1 of the Criminal Code (no matter where the action occurs, the
threat of action is made or the action, if carried out, would occur).
Note The definition of terrorist act in that
section covers actions or threats of actions.
(1A) This regulation applies to publications
and any other goods, that:
(a) describe, depict, express or otherwise deal
with matters of sex, drug misuse or addiction, crime, cruelty, violence or
revolting or abhorrent phenomena in such a way that they offend against the
standards of morality, decency and propriety generally accepted by reasonable
adults to the extent that they should not be imported; or
(b) describe or depict in a way that is likely to
cause offence to a reasonable adult, a person who is, or who appears to be, a
child under 18 (whether the person is engaged in sexual activity or not); or
(c) in relation to a computer game — are
unsuitable for a person under 18 to see or play; or
(d) promote, incite or instruct in matters of
crime or violence; or
(e) promote or incite the misuse of a drug
specified in Schedule 4; or
(f) advocate the doing of a terrorist act.
(1B) For paragraph (1A) (f), publications and any
other goods advocate the doing of a terrorist act if they:
(a) directly or indirectly counsel or urge the
doing of a terrorist act; or
(b) directly or indirectly provide instructions
on the doing of a terrorist act; or
(c) directly praise the doing of a terrorist act
in circumstances where there is a risk that such praise might have the effect
of leading a person (regardless of his or her age or any mental impairment
(within the meaning of section 7.3 of the Criminal Code) that the person
might suffer) to engage in a terrorist act.
(1C) For paragraph (1A) (f), publications and any
other goods do not advocate the doing of a terrorist act if they depict or
describe a terrorist act, but the depiction or description could reasonably be
considered to be done merely as part of public discussion or debate or as
entertainment or satire.
(2) The importation of goods to which this
regulation applies is prohibited unless a permission, in writing, to import the
goods has been granted by the Attorney‑General or a person authorized by
the Attorney‑General for the purposes of this subregulation.
(2AA) In considering whether to grant a
permission under subregulation (2), the Attorney‑General or the person
authorised by the Attorney‑General is to have regard to:
(a) the purposes for which the goods are to be
imported; and
(b) the extent to which the person to whom any
permission to import the goods would be granted conducts activities of an
artistic or educational, or of a cultural or scientific, nature to which the
goods relate; and
(c) the reputation of the person referred to in
paragraph (b), both generally and in relation to an activity referred to in
that paragraph; and
(d) the ability of that person to meet conditions
that may be imposed under subregulaton (3) in relation to the goods; and
(e) any other relevant matters.
(2A) The Attorney‑General may, by
instrument in writing, appoint a person to be an authorized person for the
purposes of subregulation (2).
(3) A permission under this regulation
shall be subject to such conditions imposing requirements or prohibitions on
the person to whom the permission is granted with respect to the custody, use,
reproduction, disposal, destruction or exportation of the goods, or with
respect to accounting for the goods, as the Attorney‑General or a person
authorized by the Attorney‑General for the purposes of subregulation (2)
thinks necessary to ensure that the goods are not used otherwise than for the
purpose for which he grants the permission.
(4) Application may be made to the
Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of a decision of the Attorney‑General
under subregulation (2):
(a) refusing to grant a permission; or
(b) granting a permission subject to conditions
by the person to whom the permission was granted subject to conditions.
(5) The Attorney‑General may certify
in writing that in his or her opinion it is in the public interest that
responsibility for a permission or a refusal of a permission specified in the
certificate should reside solely with the Attorney‑General and should not
be reviewable by the Administrative Appeals Tribunal.
(6) The Attorney‑General is to give
a copy of a certificate to the person to whom permission was refused or given
subject to conditions under subregulation (4).
(7) A certificate must include a statement
of the grounds on which the certificate is issued.
(8) While a certificate is in force in
relation to a permission or a refusal of a permission, subregulation (4) does
not apply to that permission or refusal.
(9) The Attorney‑General is to cause
a copy of a certificate to be laid before each House of the Parliament within
15 sitting days of that House after the day on which the certificate is issued.
(10) Subject to subregulation (6), if the
Attorney‑General:
(a) refuses to grant a permission to a person;
or
(b) grants a permission to a person subject to
conditions;
he or she is to inform the person of the decision by notice in
writing within 30 days after making the decision.
(11) A notice
under subregulation (10) must include:
(a) a statement to the effect that application
may be made to the Tribunal under the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act
1975 for review of the decision to which the notice relates; and
(b) except where subsection 28 (4) of that Act
applies — a statement to the effect that a person who is entitled to apply
to the Tribunal for review of the decision may, under section 28 of that Act,
request a statement that includes the reasons for the decision.
(12) A contravention of subregulation (11)
in relation to a decision does not affect the validity of the decision.
4AA Importation
of plastic explosives
(1) The importation of plastic explosives into Australia
is prohibited unless:
(a) a permission to import the plastic
explosives has been granted in writing by the Attorney‑General or an
authorised person; and
(b) the permission is produced to the Collector.
(2) If, on an application for a permission under
subregulation (1), an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission
should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the
application to the Attorney‑General; and
(b) the Attorney‑General may grant, or
refuse to grant, the permission.
(3) A permission may specify:
(a) conditions or requirements to be complied
with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) when the holder must comply with a condition
or requirement, whether before or after the importation of the plastic
explosives to which the permission relates.
(4) If the holder of a permission engages in conduct
that contravenes a condition or requirement of the permission:
(a) the Attorney‑General; or
(b) the authorised person;
may, by writing, revoke the permission.
(5) The Attorney‑General or the authorised person
may revoke a permission under subregulation (4) whether or not the holder of
the permission is charged with an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the
Act of engaging in conduct that contravenes the condition or requirement.
(6) This regulation does not apply to plastic explosives
included in a class of goods described in Schedule 2.
(7) In this regulation:
authorised person means an SES employee, or
an acting SES employee, of the Attorney‑General’s Department who is
authorised in writing by the Attorney‑General to be an authorised person
for the purposes of this regulation.
plastic explosive has the same meaning as in
Subdivision B of Division 72 of the Criminal Code.
4AB Importation of polychlorinated biphenyls,
terphenyls etc
(1) This regulation applies to the
following goods:
(a) substances obtained by chlorinating
biphenyls;
(b) goods containing substances obtained by
chlorinating biphenyls;
(c) substances obtained by chlorinating
terphenyls or other polyphenyls; and
(d) goods containing substances obtained by chlorinating
terphenyls or other polyphenyls.
(2) The importation into Australia of
goods to which this regulation applies is prohibited unless a permission, in
writing, to import the goods has been granted by the Minister.
(3) A permission under this regulation
shall be subject to such conditions imposing requirements or prohibitions on
the person to whom the permission is granted with respect to the custody, use,
disposal or destruction of the goods, or with respect to accounting for the
goods, as the Minister thinks necessary to ensure that the goods are not used
otherwise than for the purpose for which he grants the permission.
4B Importation
of fish
(1) In this regulation fish includes all
species of bony fish, sharks, rays, crustaceans, molluscs and other marine
organisms, but does not include marine mammals or marine reptiles.
(2) This regulation applies to fish, other
than fish that are, by virtue of section 131A of the Act, not subject to the
control of the Customs, that:
(a) have been taken in waters beyond the outer
limits of the Australian fishing zone within the meaning of the Fisheries
Management Act 1991; and
(b) have not been
landed at a port or place in a country outside Australia;
whether the fish are fresh, smoked, preserved in airtight containers
or frozen.
(2A) Despite subregulation (2), this regulation does not
apply to fish to which regulation 4BA applies.
(3) The importation of fish, or of parts
of fish, to which this regulation applies is prohibited unless the importer
produces to the Collector the permission, in writing, of the Minister
administering the Fisheries Management Act 1991.
4BA Importation
of goods specified in Schedule 3A (toothfish)
(1) This regulation applies to fish of a species
specified in Schedule 3A (except fish that are, by virtue of section 131A
of the Act, not subject to the control of Customs), whether fresh, frozen,
smoked, preserved in airtight containers or in any other form.
(2) The importation into Australia of fish, or of parts
of fish, to which this regulation applies is prohibited unless:
(a) a permission in writing to import the fish
has been granted by the Minister or an authorised officer; and
(b) the permission is produced to the Collector.
(3) If, on an application for a permission under subregulation
(2), an authorised officer forms an opinion that the permission should not be
granted:
(a) the authorised officer must refer the
application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant,
the permission.
(4) A permission may specify:
(a) conditions or requirements to be complied
with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) when the holder must comply with a condition
or requirement, whether before or after the importation of the fish to which
the permission relates.
(5) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition or requirement of the permission, the Minister, by writing, may
revoke the permission.
(6) The Minister may revoke a permission under
subregulation (5) whether or not the holder of the permission is charged with
an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act for not complying with the
condition or requirement.
(7) In this regulation:
authorised officer means an officer within
the meaning of subsection 4 (1) of the Fisheries Management Act 1991
who is authorised by the Minister, in writing, for the purposes of this
regulation.
Minister means the Minister administering the
Fisheries Management Act 1991.
4C Importation
of asbestos
(1) The importation into Australia of amphibole
asbestos, or goods containing amphibole asbestos, is prohibited unless:
(a) the importation is of raw
materials that contain naturally occurring traces of amphibole asbestos; or
(b) the Minister administering the Occupational
Health and Safety Act 1991 or a person authorised by that Minister confirms
that he or she has granted permission to import the amphibole asbestos or
goods, and the confirmation is produced to a Collector; or
(c) the importation is of hazardous waste as
defined in section 4 of the Hazardous Waste (Regulation of Exports and
Imports) Act 1989.
(2) For paragraph (1) (b), the Minister or
authorised person may grant permission to import the amphibole asbestos or
goods.
(3) The importation into Australia of chrysotile, or
goods that contain chrysotile, is prohibited unless:
(a) the chrysotile is, or the goods are,
hazardous waste as defined in section 4 of the Hazardous Waste (Regulation
of Exports and Imports) Act 1989; or
(b) an authority of a State or Territory confirms
that the proposed use of the chrysotile or goods is in accordance with the
State or Territory law relating to occupational health and safety; or
(c) the Safety, Rehabilitation and Compensation
Commission confirms that it has granted an exemption under the Occupational
Health and Safety (Safety Standards) Regulations 1994 for the use of the
chrysotile or goods; or
(d) the Seafarers Safety, Rehabilitation and
Compensation Authority confirms that it has granted an exemption under the Occupational
Health and Safety (Maritime Industry) (National Standards) Regulations 2003
for the use of the chrysotile or goods; or
(e) the Minister administering the Occupational
Health and Safety Act 1991 or a person authorised by that Minister confirms
that he or she has granted permission to import the chrysotile or goods; or
(f) the chrysotile is, or the goods are, being
imported from the Australian Antarctic Territory; or
(g) the goods are raw materials that contain
naturally occurring traces of chrysotile.
(5) For paragraphs (3) (b), (c) and (d):
(a) both:
(i) the confirmation must state that
the chrysotile is, or goods are, for a use mentioned in Schedule 3B; and
(ii) the chrysotile or goods must be
imported on or before the date mentioned in Schedule 3B for that use; or
(b) the confirmation must state that the
chrysotile is, or goods are for research, analysis or display.
(6) For paragraph
(3) (e), the Minister or authorised person may grant permission to import
chrysotile or goods only if he or she is satisfied that the chrysotile is, or
goods are, for research, analysis or display.
(7) For paragraphs (3) (b), (c), (d) and (e), a
copy of the confirmation must be produced to a Collector.
4D Importation
of unmanufactured tobacco leaf
(1) The importation into
Australia of unmanufactured tobacco leaf mentioned in subheading 2401.10.00 of
Schedule 3 to the Customs Tariff Act 1995 is prohibited unless:
(a) the person
importing the leaf is the holder of:
(i) a dealer licence granted under
Part IV of the Excise Act 1901; or
(ii) a manufacturer licence, to
manufacture excisable tobacco or tobacco products, granted under Part IV of the
Excise Act 1901; and
(b) a permission in writing to import the leaf
has been given by the Commissioner of Taxation; and
(c) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2) An application for a
permission must be:
(a) in writing; and
(b) lodged with the Commissioner.
(3) An applicant for a permission must give the
Commissioner in writing any information the Commissioner reasonably requires
for the application.
(4) In deciding whether
to grant a permission, the Commissioner:
(a) must consider the applicant’s compliance
with the Excise Act 1901; and
(b) may consider any other relevant matters.
(5) A permission may
specify:
(a) conditions to be complied with by the holder
of the permission; and
(b) when the holder of the permission must comply
with a condition, whether before or after the importation of the leaf to which
the permission relates.
(6) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition of the permission, the Commissioner may, by writing, revoke the
permission.
(7) Subregulations (8)
and (9) apply if the Commissioner decides:
(a) not to grant a permission; or
(b) to specify a condition for a permission; or
(c) to revoke a permission.
(8) The Commissioner must give the applicant written
notice of the decision as soon as practicable after making the decision.
(9) A person who is dissatisfied with the decision may
object against it in the manner set out in Part IVC of the Taxation
Administration Act 1953.
Note Part IVC of the Taxation
Administration Act 1953 applies if a provision of regulations provides that
a person who is dissatisfied with a decision may object against it in the
manner set out in the Part: see section 14ZL of that Act.
(10) A current consent given by the Treasurer under item 2
of Schedule 3 as in force immediately before the commencement of this provision
is taken to be a permission granted by the Commissioner, subject to any
conditions to which the consent was subject.
4E Importation of glazed ceramic ware
(1) The importation into Australia of an
article of glazed ceramic ware of a kind normally used for or in connexion with
the storage or consumption of food is prohibited if the article is an article
of a kind specified in an item in Schedule 7 and, when tested with the
prescribed solution in accordance with the method specified in that item (in
column 3), releases to the solution lead or cadmium in an amount per volume of
solution in excess of the amounts of lead and cadmium per volume of solution
respectively specified in that item (in columns 4 and 5).
(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1),
the prescribed solution is a solution consisting of four per centum by volume
of glacial acetic acid in water, being water that conforms with British
Standard 3978 published on 18 February 1966.
4F Importation of firearms, firearm
accessories, firearm parts, firearm magazines, ammunition, components of
ammunition and replicas
(1) Subject to subregulations (2), (2A)
and (2B), the importation of a firearm, a firearm accessory, a firearm part, a
firearm magazine, ammunition, a component of ammunition or a replica is
prohibited unless:
(a) the firearm, firearm accessory, firearm
part, firearm magazine, ammunition, a component of ammunition or a replica is
an article to which an item in Part 2 of Schedule 6 applies; and
(b) the importation is in accordance with the
requirements set out in column 3 of the item.
(2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to
the importation of a firearm, a firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm
magazine, ammunition, a component of ammunition or a replica that meets the
criteria set out in regulation 3A.
(2A) Also, subregulation (1) does not apply to the
importation of:
(a) a handgun that:
(i) is mentioned in column 2 in item 9
of Part 2 of Schedule 6; and
(ii) meets the criteria set out in
regulation 3B; or
(b) a handgun part:
(i) to which item 10 of Part 2 of
Schedule 6 applies; and
(ii) that meets the criteria set out in
regulation 3B; or
(c) ammunition that:
(i) is mentioned in column 2 in item
20 of Part 2 of Schedule 6; and
(ii) meets the criteria set out in
regulation 3B.
(2B) Also, subregulation (1) does not apply to the
importation
of a firearm, a firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine,
ammunition, a component of ammunition or a replica that meets the criteria
mentioned in subregulation 3C (1).
(3) The importation of a firearm, a
firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine, ammunition, a component
of ammunition or a replica is subject to the conditions (if any), set out in
Part 3 (other than item 1) of Schedule 6, that relate to the importation.
(4) In this regulation:
component of ammunition means a
projectile, cartridge casing or primer designed or adapted for use in
ammunition.
deactivated firearm
means an article that:
(a) was in a condition in which it could
discharge shot, bullets or other projectiles by means of an explosive charge or
a compressed gas; and
(b) has been rendered incapable of discharging
shot, bullets or other projectiles by means of an explosive charge or a
compressed gas; and
(c) cannot be returned to a condition in which
it could discharge shot, bullets or other projectiles by means of an explosive
charge or a compressed gas; and
(d) still has the appearance of a firearm, and
could reasonably be taken to be a firearm.
Note A firearm can be deactivated to the
extent that it is incapable of being returned to its original firing condition,
while keeping the appearance of a firearm.
For the article to be incapable of being returned to its
original firing condition, all major parts of the article must be destroyed,
permanently incapacitated or permanently immobilised. This includes (but is not
limited to) the bolt, barrel, gas system, receiver, trigger, sear or hammer,
feed pawls and actuating arm or arms. This can be done:
(a) by fusion welding, which is welding
material into the barrel, and welding of all the major parts of the firearm, in
a way that cannot be reversed; or
(b) by sectioning, which is the machining or
milling of all the major parts of the firearm in a way that cannot be reversed,
exposing the internal mechanism; or
(c) another method of treating the major parts that ensures
that the parts are deactivated to the extent that the firearm is incapable of
being returned to its original firing condition.
firearm:
(a) means a device designed or adapted to
discharge shot, bullets or other projectiles by means of an explosive charge or
a compressed gas, whether that device is fitted with a magazine or other
feeding device designed to be used with it or not; and
(b) includes a deactivated firearm; and
(c) does not include the following devices:
(i) a nailing or stapling gun;
(ii) an explosive‑powered fixing
tool;
(iii) a flare gun, or other signalling
device, designed for emergency or life‑saving purposes;
(iv) a line‑thrower;
(v) a hand‑operated device that
uses blank cartridges to propel objects for retrieval in connection with the
training of dogs;
(vi) a tranquilliser gun;
(vii) a gun that operates a captive bolt
for the slaughter of animals;
(viii) a device for the casting of
weighted nets;
(ix) an underwater powerhead;
(x) large calibre armament, weapons,
launchers, throwers and projectors, designed for grenades, bombs, rockets or
any other missile, ammunition or substance, to which item 8 of Schedule 2
applies;
(xi) a sidewall core gun designed for
geological purposes, mining purposes, or both;
(xii) an expandable casing perforation
gun designed for geological purposes, mining purposes, or both.
firearm accessory means any of the following
devices:
(a) a silencer designed or intended for use with
a firearm;
(b) a device designed to modify a firearm so as
to give it a rapid fire capability;
(c) a device capable of converting a firearm to
fire in a fully automatic condition;
(d) a folding stock;
(e) a detachable stock;
(f) a telescopic stock;
(g) a collapsible stock.
firearm magazine means a magazine designed or
intended for use with a firearm.
firearm part, for a firearm, means any of the following items:
(a) a gas piston, friction assembly, action bar,
breech bolt or breech block;
(b) a firearm barrel;
(c) an assembled trigger mechanism;
(d) a receiver;
(e) something, other than a complete firearm,
that includes 1 or more of these items.
Note The effect of the definition is
that some items used in a firearm are not treated as ‘firearm parts’ by
themselves, including the following items:
(a) a
firearm accessory, a firearm magazine or ammunition;
(b) a screw,
spring, or other minor component, of a firearm.
replica means an article, of any material or
colour:
(a) that:
(i) is a copy or reproduction of a
firearm; or
(ii) has the appearance of a firearm;
and
(b) that is not capable of discharging shot, bullets
or other projectiles by means of an explosive charge or a compressed gas; and
(c) that could reasonably be taken to be a
firearm.
4K Importation
of woolpacks and woolpack caps
(1) Subject to this regulation, the
importation into Australia of woolpacks or woolpack caps is prohibited unless
permission in writing to import the woolpacks or woolpack caps, as the case may
be, for a specified purpose has been granted by the Minister for Agriculture,
Fisheries and Forestry or an authorised person.
(2) A permission under this regulation may
be subject to conditions imposing requirements or prohibitions on the person to
whom the permission is granted with respect to the custody, use, disposal or
destruction of the woolpacks or woolpack caps, as the case may be, for the
purpose of ensuring that the woolpacks or woolpack caps are not used otherwise
than for the purpose in relation to which the permission is granted.
(3) Subregulation (1) does not apply in
relation to unused woolpacks consisting of high density polyethylene for which:
(a) there is produced to the Collector, no later
than 31 March 1996, a certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority
stating that the woolpacks conform to Australian Wool Research and Promotion
Organisation Standard No. 1 published on 10 February 1994; or
(b) there is produced to the Collector a
certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority stating that the woolpacks
conform to Australian Wool Exchange Standard No. 1 published on 1 January 1996.
(4) Subregulation (1) does not apply in
relation to unused woolpacks consisting of jute for which:
(a) there is produced to the Collector, no later
than 31 March 1996, a certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority
stating that the woolpacks conform to Australian Wool Research and Promotion
Organisation Standard No. 2 published on 10 February 1994; or
(b) there is produced to the Collector a
certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority stating that the woolpacks
conform to Australian Wool Exchange Standard No. 2 published on 1 January
1996.
(5) Subregulation
(1) does not apply in relation to unused woolpacks consisting of multifilament
nylon for which:
(a) there is produced to the Collector, no later
than 31 March 1996, a certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority
stating that the woolpacks conform to Australian Wool Research and Promotion
Organisation Standard No. 3 published on 10 February 1994; or
(b) there is produced to the Collector a
certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority stating that the woolpacks
conform to Australian Wool Exchange Standard No. 3 published on 1 January
1996.
(6) Subregulation (1) does not apply in
relation to unused woolpack caps for which:
(a) there is produced to the Collector, no later
than 31 March 1996, a certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority
stating that the woolpack caps conform to Australian Wool Research and
Promotion Organisation Standard No. 4 published on 10 February 1994; or
(b) there is produced to the Collector a
certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority stating that the woolpack
caps conform to Australian Wool Exchange Standard No. 4 published on 1
January 1996.
(7) Subregulation (1) does not apply in
relation to unused premium grade woolpacks consisting of high density
polyethylene for which:
(a) there is produced to the Collector, no later
than 31 March 1996, a certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority
stating that the woolpacks conform to Australian Wool Research and Promotion
Organisation Standard No. 5 published on 10 February 1994; or
(b) there is produced to the Collector a
certificate issued by a prescribed testing authority stating that the woolpacks
conform to Australian Wool Exchange Standard No. 5 published on 1 January
1996.
(8) In this
regulation:
authorised person
means an officer or employee of the Department of Agriculture, Fisheries and
Forestry authorised in writing by the Minister for Agriculture, Fisheries and
Forestry to grant a permission to import woolpacks or woolpack caps.
prescribed testing authority means an
Australian or overseas testing authority approved by the Minister for
Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry on the recommendation of:
(a) the Australian Wool Exchange; or
(b) the Australian Wool Research and Promotion
Organisation;
for the purposes of this regulation.
4MA Importation
of rough diamonds generally
(1) In this regulation:
country includes an international
organisation of states or a dependent territory of a country.
Interlaken Declaration means the Interlaken Declaration
of 5 November 2002 on the Kimberley Process Certification Scheme for
Rough Diamonds.
Kimberley Process means the international
certification arrangement for rough diamonds adopted under the Interlaken
Declaration.
Kimberley Process
Certificate means a certificate that meets the minimum requirements for
certificates specified in Part A of Annex 1 of the document known as the
Kimberley Process Certification Scheme which accompanied the Interlaken
Declaration.
original certificate means the original Kimberley
Process Certificate mentioned in paragraph (2) (b).
Participant means a country that is a
Participant in the Kimberley Process.
rough diamonds means diamonds that:
(a) are unworked or simply sawn, cleaved or
bruted; and
(b) are classified under heading 7102.10.00,
7102.21.00 or 7102.31.00 of Schedule 3 to the Customs Tariff Act 1995.
(2) The importation of rough diamonds from a country is
prohibited unless:
(a) the country is a Participant; and
(b) the country has issued a Kimberley Process
Certificate for the rough diamonds; and
(c) the original certificate is produced to a
Collector at or before the time of importation; and
(d) the rough
diamonds are imported in a tamper resistant container.
(3) The importer must:
(a) retain the original certificate for a period
of 5 years after the time of importation; and
(b) produce the original certificate to an
employee of the Department of Industry, Tourism and Resources if requested to
do so within that period.
4N Importation
of rough diamonds from Côte d’Ivoire
Despite regulation 4MA, the direct or indirect
importation of rough diamonds from Côte d’Ivoire is prohibited absolutely,
whether or not the diamonds originate from Côte d’Ivoire.
4R Importation
of radioactive substances
(1) In this regulation, unless the
contrary intention appears:
authorised officer
means:
(a) the CEO of ARPANSA, within the meaning of
section 14 of the Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety
Act 1998, appointed in writing by the Minister as an authorised officer for
this regulation; or
(b) an APS employee assisting the CEO in
accordance with section 58 of that Act appointed in writing by the Minister as
an authorised officer for this regulation.
Minister means the Minister for Health and
Ageing.
radioactive substance means any radioactive
material or substance, including radium, any radioactive isotope or any article
containing any radioactive material or substance.
(2) The importation into Australia of a
radioactive substance is prohibited unless:
(a) a permission in writing to import the
substance has been granted by the Minister or an authorised officer; and
(b) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(3) Where, in relation to an application for a
permission under subregulation (2), an authorised officer has formed an opinion
that the permission should not be granted, the authorised officer shall refer
the application to the Minister.
(4) If an application has been referred to the Minister
under subregulation (3), the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the
permission.
(5) A permission granted under subregulation (2)
or (4) may specify conditions or requirements to be complied with by the holder
of the permission and may, in respect of any such condition or requirement,
specify a time (being a time before or after the importation of the goods to
which the permission relates) at or before which the condition or requirement
shall be complied with by the holder.
(6) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition or requirement (if any) of the permission, the Minister may, by
writing, revoke the permission.
(7) The Minister may revoke a permission under
subregulation (6) whether or not the holder of the permission is charged with
an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act for not complying with the
condition or requirement.
4S Importation
of lighters
(1) Subject to subregulation (2), the importation into
Australia of a lighter is prohibited unless:
(a) the person importing the lighter has:
(i) completed a statutory declaration
stating that a certificate of compliance, within the meaning of the American
Standard, has been issued in accordance with that standard; and
(ii) produced that statutory
declaration to the Collector; or
(b) the Minister has granted a permission in
writing for the lighter to be imported.
(2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a passenger, 18
years or older, importing no more than 5 lighters on a ship or aircraft.
(3) A permission granted under paragraph (1) (b)
may specify:
(a) the conditions or requirements to be
complied with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) the time, being a time either before or after
the importation of the goods to which the permission relates, at or before
which the condition or requirement is to be complied with by the holder of the
permission.
(4) If the holder of a permission granted under
paragraph (1) (b) is required to comply with a condition or requirement and the
holder of the permission fails to comply with the condition
or requirement, the Minister may, by writing, revoke the permission.
(5) In this regulation:
American Standard means the Consumer Product
Safety Standard for Cigarette Lighters (16 CFR 1210):
(a) set out in Part 1210, Title 16 of the Code
of Federal Regulations; and
(b) published in the Federal Register of the
United States of America, Vol 58, No. 131, on 12 July 1993.
Disposable lighter means a flame producing
device that is designed:
(a) to light cigarettes, cigars or pipes; and
(b) to be
discarded when its fuel supply is exhausted, or to incorporate a separate
container of fuel that is designed to be discarded when empty.
lighter means a disposable lighter, novelty
lighter or refillable lighter.
Minister means the Minister administering
Division 1A of Part V of the Trade Practices Act 1974.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Order explains which Minister administers Division 1A of Part V of
the Trade Practices Act 1974.
Novelty lighter means a flame producing
device that is designed:
(a) to light cigarettes, cigars or pipes; and
(b) either:
(i) to have an entertaining audio or
visual effect (other than producing a flame) (for example, playing musical
notes or displaying flashing lights); or
(ii) to depict or resemble, in physical
form or function, an article commonly recognised as appealing to, or intended
to be used by, a young child (for example a cartoon character, drink, food,
gun, musical instrument, toy, toy animal, vehicle or watch).
refillable lighter means a flame producing
device that:
(a) is designed to light cigarettes, cigars or
pipes; and
(b) is designed to be refilled with fuel; and
(c) has a customs value, determined under
section 159 of the Customs Act 1901, of $5 or less.
4T Importation
of counterfeit credit, debit and charge cards
(1) The importation into Australia of a counterfeit
credit, debit or charge card is prohibited unless:
(a) a permission in writing to import the card
has been given by the Minister; and
(b) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2) A permission may
specify:
(a) conditions or requirements to be complied
with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) when the holder of the permission must comply
with a condition or requirement, whether before or after the importation of the
card to which the permission relates.
(3) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition or requirement (if any) of the permission, the Minister may, by
writing, revoke the permission.
(4) In this regulation:
Minister means the Minister administering the
Australian Federal Police Act 1979.
4U Importation
of goods the subject of a permanent ban under the Trade Practices
Act 1974
(1) The importation into Australia of goods mentioned in
Schedule 12 is prohibited unless:
(a) a permission in writing to import the goods
has been given by the Minister; and
(b) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2) A permission may
specify:
(a) conditions to be complied with by the holder
of the permission; and
(b) when the holder of the permission must comply
with a condition, whether before or after the importation of the goods to which
the permission relates.
(3) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition of the permission, the Minister may, by writing, revoke the
permission.
(4) In this regulation:
Minister means
the Minister administering Division 1A of Part V of the Trade Practices
Act 1974.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Order explains which Minister administers Division 1A of Part V of
the Trade Practices Act 1974.
4V Importation
of Anzac goods
(1) In this regulation:
authorised officer means an officer of the
Department administered by the Minister authorised in writing by the Minister
for the purposes of this regulation.
Minister means the Minister administering the
Anzac Day Act 1995.
(2) In this regulation, a reference to the word ‘Anzac’
includes a reference to a word so nearly resembling the word ‘Anzac’ as to be
likely to deceive.
(3) The importation into
Australia of goods the description of which includes the word ‘Anzac’ or goods
bearing the word ‘Anzac’, or advertising matter relating to those goods, is
prohibited unless:
(a) the person importing the goods is the holder
of a written permission granted by the Minister or an authorised officer; and
(b) the permission or a copy of the permission is
produced to the Collector at or before the time of importation.
(4) An application for a permission under subregulation
(3) must be in writing.
(5) A permission under subregulation (3)
may specify conditions or requirements to be complied with by the holder of the
permission and may, for any such condition or requirement, specify the time,
(being a time either before or after the importation of the goods to which the
permission relates), at or before which the condition or requirement must be
complied with by the holder of the permission.
(6) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition or requirement (if any) of the permission, the Minister or an
authorised officer may, by writing, revoke the permission.
(7) The Minister or authorised officer may revoke a
permission under subregulation (6) whether or not the holder of the permission
is charged with an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act for not complying
with the condition or requirement.
4W Importation
of cat or dog fur
(1) In this regulation:
authorised person means a person authorised
in writing by the Minister for this regulation.
cat fur means the pelt or hair of an animal
of the species Felis catus.
cat or dog fur product means a product or
other thing that consists, wholly or partly, of cat fur or dog fur.
dog fur means the pelt or hair of an animal
of the species Canis familiaris.
(2) The importation into Australia of cat fur, dog fur
or a cat or dog fur product is prohibited unless:
(a) permission to import the goods has been
granted under subregulation (3) and is in force; and
(b) the permission is produced to the Collector.
(3) The Minister, or an authorised person, may, on
application, grant a permission, in writing, for the importation of cat fur,
dog fur or a cat or dog fur product.
(4) An application:
(a) must be in writing; and
(b) must be lodged with the Minister or an
authorised person.
(5) The Minister, or an authorised person, may ask an
applicant to give to the Minister or authorised person any information the
Minister or authorised person may reasonably require for the purpose of making
a decision in relation to the application.
(6) In deciding whether to grant a permission, the
Minister, or an authorised person, may take into account any matter that the
Minister or authorised person considers relevant.
(7) As soon as practicable after making a decision to
grant, or not to grant, a permission, the Minister or authorised person must
give written notice of the decision to the applicant.
(8) A permission granted under subregulation (3):
(a) may specify conditions or requirements to be
complied with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) for any such condition or requirement, may
specify the time (being a time either before or after the importation of the
goods to which the permission relates) at or before which the condition or
requirement must be complied with by the holder of the permission.
(9) The Minister, or an authorised person, may revoke a
permission if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that the holder
has failed to comply with a condition or requirement of the permission.
(10) If the Minister or an authorised person decides to
revoke a permission, the Minister or authorised person must, as soon as
practicable after making the decision, give written notice of the decision to
the holder of the permission.
(11) Application may be made to the Administrative Appeals
Tribunal for review of a decision of the Minister or of an authorised person:
(a) not to grant a permission; or
(b) to grant a permission subject to a condition
or requirement; or
(c) to revoke a permission.
(12) Notice of a decision mentioned in subregulation (7)
or (10) must include a statement to the effect that:
(a) subject to the Administrative Appeals
Tribunal Act 1975, a person affected by the decision may make an
application to the Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of the decision;
and
(b) a person whose interests are affected by the
decision may request a statement under section 28 of that Act.
(13) A failure to comply with subregulation (12) does not
affect the validity of the decision.
4X Importation
of security sensitive ammonium nitrate
The importation into Australia of security
sensitive ammonium nitrate (SSAN) is prohibited unless:
(a) both of the following requirements are met:
(i) permission (whether in the form of
a licence or otherwise) for the importation of the SSAN has been granted in
writing by an authority of the State or Territory where the SSAN is to be
located immediately after importation; and
(ii) the permission is produced to a
Collector; or
(b) permission to import the SSAN is not required
under the law of the State or Territory where the SSAN is to be located
immediately after importation.
4Y Importation
of goods from Democratic People’s Republic of Korea
(1) In this regulation:
authorised person means an officer of the
Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade authorised in writing by the Foreign
Minister for this regulation.
Foreign Minister means the Minister for
Foreign Affairs.
(2) The importation of the following goods from the
Democratic People’s Republic of Korea is prohibited unless the written
permission of the Foreign Minister or an authorised person is produced to a
Collector at or before the time of importation:
(a) battle tanks;
(b) armoured combat vehicles;
(c) large calibre artillery systems;
(d) combat aircraft and other military aircraft;
(e) attack helicopters;
(f) warships;
(g) missiles or missile systems;
(h) matériel related to any of the goods
mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (g), including parts;
(i) goods that are capable of being used in the
development, production or stockpiling of nuclear, biological or chemical
weapons;
(j) goods that are capable of being used in the
development or production of missiles that are capable of delivering nuclear,
biological or chemical weapons.
(2A) An application for the written permission of the
Foreign Minister or an authorised person mentioned in subregulation (2)
must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain the information required by the
approved form; and
(c) be signed as indicated by the approved form.
(3) When deciding whether to give permission under
subregulation (2), the Foreign Minister or an authorised person must take
into account:
(a) Australia’s relations with other countries;
and
(b) Australia’s obligations under international
law.
(4) A permission granted under subregulation (2) may
specify, for the importation of the goods that it permits:
(a) conditions or requirements, including times
for compliance, to which the importation is subject; and
(b) the quantity of the goods that may be
imported; and
(c) the circumstances in which the goods may be
imported.
(5) The Foreign Minister may revoke or modify a
permission granted under subregulation (2) if there are reasonable grounds for
believing that:
(a) a condition or requirement of the permission
has not been complied with or, unless modified, is unlikely to be complied
with; or
(b) permitting, or continuing to permit, the
importation of goods in accordance with the permission would infringe the
international obligations of Australia.
4Z Importation
of certain goods from Iran
(1) In this regulation:
arms or related matériel
includes:
(a) weapons; and
(b) ammunition; and
(c) military vehicles and equipment; and
(d) spare parts and accessories for the things
mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c); and
(e) paramilitary equipment.
authorised person means an employee of the
Department administered by the Foreign Minister, authorised in writing by the
Foreign Minister to give permissions under this regulation.
Foreign Minister means the Minister for
Foreign Affairs.
paramilitary equipment means any of the
following:
(a) batons, clubs, riot sticks and similar
devices of a kind used for law enforcement purposes;
(b) body armour, including:
(i) bullet‑resistant apparel;
and
(ii) bullet‑resistant pads; and
(iii) protective helmets;
(c) handcuffs, leg‑irons and other devices
used for restraining prisoners;
(d) riot protection shields;
(e) whips;
(f) parts and accessories designed or adapted
for use in, or with, equipment mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (e).
(2) The importation, from
Iran, of the following items, materials, equipment, goods and technology is
prohibited unless the written permission of the Foreign Minister or an
authorised person is produced to a Collector at or before the time of
importation:
(a) items, materials, equipment, goods and
technology listed in United Nations Security Council document S/2006/814;
(b) items, materials, equipment, goods and
technology listed in United Nations Security Council document S/2006/815;
(c) arms or related matériel.
(2A) An application for the written permission of the
Foreign Minister or an authorised person mentioned in subregulation (2)
must:
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) contain the information required by the
approved form; and
(c) be signed as indicated by the approved form.
(3) A permission to import goods granted under
subregulation (2) may specify for the importation:
(a) conditions or requirements, including times
for compliance, to which the importation is subject; and
(b) the quantity of the goods that may be
imported; and
(c) the circumstances in which the goods may be
imported.
(4) When deciding whether to give permission under
subregulation (2), the Foreign Minister or an authorised person must take
into account:
(a) Australia’s relations with other countries;
and
(b) Australia’s obligations under international
law.
(5) The Foreign Minister may revoke or modify a
permission granted under subregulation (2) if there are reasonable grounds for
believing that:
(a) a condition or requirement of the permission
has not been complied with or, unless modified, is unlikely to be complied
with; or
(b) permitting, or continuing to permit, the
importation of goods in accordance with the permission would infringe the
international obligations of Australia.
5 Importation
of drugs
(1) Subject to subregulations (2) and (2A), the
importation into Australia of a drug is prohibited unless:
(a) the person importing the drug is the holder
of:
(i) a licence to import drugs granted
by the Secretary or an authorised person under this regulation; and
(ii) a permission to import the drug
granted by the Secretary or an authorised person under this regulation;
(b) the permission referred to in subparagraph
(a) (ii), or a copy of the permission, is produced to the Collector;
(c) the drug is imported within the period
specified in the permission referred to in subparagraph (a) (ii); and
(d) the quantity of the drug that is imported
does not exceed:
(i) except where subparagraph (ii)
applies — the quantity specified in the permission referred to in
paragraph (a) (ii) in relation to the drug; or
(ii) where the Collector has given a
certificate or certificates under subregulation (14) — the difference
between the quantity specified in the permission in relation to the drug and
the quantity specified in the certificate, or, if more than one certificate has
been given, the total of the quantities specified in those certificates, in
relation to the drug.
(2) Subregulation
(1) does not apply to or in relation to:
(a) a drug in respect of the importation of
which an approval is in force under subregulation (3); or
(b) a drug that is imported into Australia by a
person who is a passenger on board a ship or aircraft if the drug:
(i) is required for the medical
treatment of the person or of another passenger under the care of the person;
(ii) was prescribed by a medical
practitioner for the purposes of that treatment; and
(iii) was supplied to the person in
accordance with the prescription of the medical practitioner referred to in
subparagraph (ii).
(2A) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a drug that is
imported into Australia by a person who is a passenger on board a ship or
aircraft if the drug:
(a) is required for the medical treatment of an
animal that is being imported and is under the care of the person; and
(b) was prescribed by a veterinarian for use in the
animal for the purposes of that treatment; and
(c) was supplied to the person in accordance
with the prescription of the veterinarian.
(3) The Minister may, on the recommendation of
the Secretary, by notice published in the Gazette, approve the importation
into Australia of a drug specified in, or included in a class of drugs
specified in, the notice.
(4) An application for a licence to import drugs
or for a permission to import a drug shall be in writing and shall be lodged
with the Secretary.
(5) Where a person makes, in accordance with
subregulation (4), an application for a licence or permission referred to in
that subregulation, the Secretary or an authorised person shall, subject to
this regulation, grant to the person the licence or permission, as the case may
be.
(6) An applicant for a licence or permission
referred to in subregulation (4) shall, on being so requested by the Secretary
or an authorised person, furnish in writing to the Secretary such information
as the Secretary or authorised person reasonably may require in relation to the
application.
(7) The Secretary or an authorised person shall
not grant to an applicant a licence to import drugs unless:
(a) the applicant has furnished all the
information requested by the Secretary or authorised person under subregulation
(6);
(b) the applicant
is a fit and proper person to be granted a licence to import drugs;
(c) the persons (if any) that the applicant:
(i) has appointed, or proposes to
appoint, as agents; or
(ii) has
employed or proposes to employ;
for the purposes of the business carried on
by him in relation to drugs, are fit and proper persons to be so appointed as
agents or so employed; and
(d) the premises on which the applicant proposes
to keep the drugs that will come within his possession during the currency of
the licence are secure for that purpose.
(8) A licence to import drugs shall, unless
previously revoked, remain in force for such period as is specified in the
licence.
(9) A licence to import drugs is granted subject
to compliance by the holder of the licence with the following conditions or
requirements:
(a) the holder of the licence shall:
(i) keep in safe custody at all times
any drug that is in his possession; and
(ii) if the drug is moved from one
place to another, take adequate precautions to ensure that the removal is
safely carried out;
(b) the holder of the licence shall take such
reasonable precautions as the Secretary or an authorised officer, or the CEO,
directs for the purpose of ensuring that there is no danger of loss or theft of
any drug in the possession of the holder of the licence;
(c) the holder of the licence shall not dispose
of any drug, being a drug, other than methaqualone, referred to in paragraph
(a) of the definition of drug in subregulation (20), unless he is
satisfied that the drug will be used solely for medical or scientific purposes;
(ca) the holder of the licence shall not dispose
of the drug methaqualone unless satisfied that the drug will be used solely for
scientific purposes;
(d) the holder of the licence shall record in a
book kept for that purpose:
(i) the name and quantity of each drug
that is in his possession and, where any such drug has been obtained from
another person, the name and address of that other person;
(ii) where the holder of the licence
supplies any quantity of a drug to another person — the quantity of the
drug so supplied and the name and address of the other person; and
(iii) where the holder of the licence
uses a drug in the manufacture of another drug or an exempted
preparation — the quantity of the drug used, lost, destroyed, evaporated
or wasted in that manufacture and the quantity and nature of the other drug or
exempted preparation manufactured;
(e) the holder of the licence shall, when required
by the Secretary or an authorised officer, or the CEO, produce to that person
for examination:
(i) any book kept in accordance with
paragraph (d); and
(ii) any drug in the possession of the
holder of the licence;
(f) the holder of the licence shall retain any
book kept in accordance with paragraph (d) until the Secretary or an authorised
person approves of its destruction;
(g) the holder of the licence shall, within 5
days after the expiration of a report week, furnish to the Secretary a return
setting out the entries recorded in respect of the report week in the book
referred to in paragraph (d);
(h) the holder of the licence shall, within 14
days after receiving a notice in writing from the Secretary or an authorised
person, furnish to the Secretary such information as is requested in the
notice, being information with respect to:
(i) the orders for drugs placed with
the holder of the licence within such period immediately preceding the date of
the notice as is specified in the notice;
(ii) the orders for drugs that the
holder of the licence reasonably expects to be placed with him within such
period immediately following the date of the notice as is specified in the
notice; or
(iii) any proposal of the holder of the
licence to manufacture or sell by wholesale, within such period immediately
following the date of the notice as is specified in the notice, a drug that he
has not previously manufactured or sold by wholesale;
(j) the holder of the licence shall in respect
of each permission to import a drug that is granted to him during the currency
of the licence, being a permission that specifies a condition or requirement to
be complied with by him, comply with that condition or requirement.
(10) The Secretary or an authorised person shall
not grant to an applicant a permission to import a drug unless:
(a) the applicant has furnished all the
information requested by the Secretary or authorised person under subregulation
(6);
(b) in the case of a drug that is included in
Schedule 1 or 2 to the Single Convention:
(i) where the drug is required by the
applicant for the manufacture of a drug at certain premises — if the Narcotic
Drugs Act 1967 applies in relation to that manufacture, the applicant is,
for the purposes of that Act, the holder of a manufacturer’s licence in
relation to the manufacture of the last‑mentioned drug at those premises
and, if, under a law of the State or Territory in which those premises are
situated, the manufacture of that drug is prohibited unless a licence to
manufacture the drug has been granted under that law, the applicant is, for the
purposes of that law, the holder of a licence authorising him to manufacture
the drug at those premises;
(ii) where the drug is required by the
applicant for the purposes of his business as a seller or supplier of
drugs — the applicant is, under a law of the State or Territory in which
the premises at or from which he conducts that business are situated, the
holder of a licence authorising him to sell or supply the drug at or from those
premises; or
(iii) where subparagraphs (i) and (ii)
do not apply — the drug is required by the applicant for medical or
scientific purposes;
(c) in the case of a drug, other than
methaqualone, that is not included in Schedule 1 or 2 to the Single Convention:
(i) where the drug is required by the
applicant for the manufacture of a drug at certain premises and, under a law of
the State or Territory in which those premises are situated, the manufacture of
the drug is prohibited unless a licence to manufacture the drug has been
granted — the applicant is, for the purposes of that law, the holder of a
licence authorising him to manufacture the drug at those premises;
(ii) where the drug is required by the
applicant for the purposes of his business as a seller or supplier of drugs
and, under a law of the State or Territory in which the premises at or from
which he conducts that business are situated, the sale or supply of the drug is
prohibited unless a licence to sell or supply the drug has been granted —
the applicant is, for the purposes of that law, the holder of a licence
authorising him to sell or supply the drug at or from those premises; or
(iii) where subparagraphs (i) and (ii)
do not apply and the drug is a drug referred to in paragraph (a) of the definition
of drug in subregulation (20) — the drug is required by the
applicant for medical or scientific purposes;
(ca) where the drug is methaqualone — the
drug is required for use by the applicant or by another person solely for
scientific purposes; and
(d) proper arrangements have been made by the
applicant for the safe transportation and safe custody of the drug after the
drug has been delivered for home consumption.
(11) A permission to import a drug shall be in
writing and shall specify:
(a) the name and address of the holder of the
permission;
(b) the name of the supplier of the drug and his
address in the country from which the drug is exported;
(c) the name by
which the drug is commonly known and the international non‑proprietary
name (if any) of the drug;
(d) the quantity of the drug that the holder of
the permission may import;
(e) where the drug is a pharmaceutical product:
(i) the form in which the drug is to
be imported; and
(ii) in the case of a drug referred to
in paragraph (d) of the definition of drug in subregulation
(20) — the strength of the active ingredient, or each active ingredient,
as the case may be, that is contained in, or is part of, the drug; and
(f) the period during which the importation may
be effected under the permission.
(12) A permission to import a drug shall not, where
the drug is included in Schedule I or II of the Single Convention, specify, as
the quantity of the drug that may be imported during the period specified in
the permission, a quantity that, together with:
(a) the total quantity (if any) of the drug the
importation of which during the year within which the specified period occurs
(in this subregulation referred to as the relevant year) has
already been authorised by the Secretary or an authorised person; and
(b) the total quantity of the drug in respect of
which, having regard to the information furnished to the Secretary under
subregulation (6) or paragraph (9) (h) by other persons holding a licence to
import drugs, those persons may reasonably be expected to apply for permission
authorising the importation of the drug during the relevant year;
exceeds the amount that, in accordance with the requirements of the
Single Convention, has been determined to be the maximum amount of that drug
that may be imported into Australia during the relevant year.
(13) A permission to import a drug may specify
conditions or requirements, including conditions or requirements with respect
to the possession, safe custody, transportation, use or disposal of the drug,
to be complied with by the holder of the permission and may, in respect of any
such condition or requirement, specify the time, being a time before or after
the importation of the drug, at which the condition or requirement is to be
complied with by the holder of the permission.
(14) Where a drug is imported in pursuance of a
permission granted under this regulation, the Collector shall, by writing under
his hand inscribed on the permission, certify:
(a) the quantity of the drug so imported; and
(b) the date on which it was imported.
(15) Where:
(a) for reasons outside the control of the
holder of a permission to import a drug, the quantity, or any part of the
quantity, of the drug specified in the permission could not be imported, or
cannot reasonably be expected to be imported, within the period specified in
the permission; and
(b) the holder of the permission (whether before
or after the expiration of the period specified in the permission) applies in
writing to the Secretary for a variation of the period during which the
importation of the drug may be effected;
the Secretary or an authorised person may, by writing under his
hand endorsed on, or attached to, the permission, specify a period other than
the period specified in the permission as the period during which the
importation of the drug may be effected.
(16) Where the Secretary or an authorised person
has specified a period under subregulation (15) in relation to the importation
of a drug, that period shall, for the purposes of paragraph (1) (c), be
deemed to be the period specified in the permission.
(17) Where the holder of a licence to import drugs
fails to comply with a condition or requirement set out in subregulation (9),
the Secretary or an authorised person may revoke the licence, whether or not
the holder of the licence is charged with an offence against subsection 50 (4)
of the Act in respect of the failure to comply with the condition or
requirements.
(18) Where:
(a) a permission to import a drug specifies a
condition or requirement to be complied with by the holder of the permission;
and
(b) the holder of the permission fails to comply
with the condition or requirement;
the Secretary or an authorised person may revoke the permission,
whether or not the holder of the permission is charged with an offence against
subsection 50 (4) of the Act in respect of the failure to comply with the
condition or requirement.
(18A) Where the Secretary or an authorised person
makes a decision:
(a) not to grant under subregulation (5) a
licence to import drugs, or a permission to import a drug; or
(b) to grant under subregulation (13) a
permission, to import a drug, that specifies:
(i) a condition or requirement to be
complied with; or
(ii) a time at which a condition or
requirement specified in the permission is to be complied with; or
(c) not to specify under subregulation (15) a
period, other than the period specified in a permission, as the period during
which the importation of a drug may be effected; or
(d) to revoke under subregulation (17) a licence
to import drugs; or
(e) to revoke under subregulation (18) a
permission to import a drug;
the Secretary or the authorised person, as
the case requires, must give to the applicant or the holder of the licence or
the holder of the permission, as the case requires, notice in writing setting
out the decision as soon as practicable after the making of the decision.
(19) The Secretary shall, before the commencement
of each year, cause to be published in the Gazette in relation to that
year, a notice entitled ‘Movements of Drugs of Dependence Calendar’ in which
shall be set out the periods that are, for the purposes of this regulation,
report weeks in respect of that year.
(20) In this
regulation:
authorised person means a person authorised
in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised person for the purposes of this
regulation.
authorised officer means an officer of the
Department authorised in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised officer
for paragraph (9) (b) or (e).
Department means the Department administered
by the Minister administering the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989. A
copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao.htm.
derivative
means:
(a) in relation to a chemical or compound —
any substance chemically derived from the chemical or compound and from which
the chemical or compound may be regenerated, and includes a salt of the
chemical or compound; and
(b) in relation to an isomer, or a mixture of
isomers, of a chemical or compound — any substance chemically derived from
the isomer or mixture of isomers and from which the isomer or mixture of
isomers may be regenerated, and includes a salt of the isomer or mixture of
isomers.
drug means:
(a) a chemical, compound, or other substance or
thing, that is included in Schedule 4;
(b) an isomer or a mixture of isomers of a
chemical or compound referred to in paragraph (a);
(c) a derivative
of:
(i) a
chemical or compound referred to in paragraph (a); or
(ii) an isomer or mixture of isomers
referred to in paragraph (b);
(d) a substance or thing, other than an exempted
preparation, that contains, or consists in part of:
(i) a chemical, compound, or other
substance or thing, referred to in paragraph (a);
(ii) an isomer or mixture of isomers
referred to in paragraph (b); or
(iii) a derivative referred to in
paragraph (c); or
(e) a chemical or compound, other than a
chemical or compound that is a drug by virtue of another paragraph of this
definition, that, in the manufacture by a chemical process of a chemical or
compound referred to in paragraph (a), is an immediate precursor of that
chemical or compound.
exempted preparation means a substance or
thing that is a preparation included in Schedule III to the Single Convention.
manufacture means:
(a) in relation to a drug — the carrying
out of any process by which the drug may be obtained and includes:
(i) the refining of the drug;
(ii) the transformation of another drug
into the drug;
(iii) the mixing or compounding of 2 or
more drugs to make the drug;
(iv) the preparation of tablets, pills,
capsules, ampoules or other pharmaceutical products consisting of, or
containing, the drug; and
(v) the packing or re‑packing of
the drug;
but does not include the carrying out of
any process referred to in subparagraph (iii), (iv), or (v) that is carried out
by, or under the responsibility of, a person in the course of his business as a
pharmacist for the purpose of supplying a quantity of the drug to another
person; and
(b) in relation to
an exempted preparation — the carrying out of any process by which the
exempted preparation may be obtained other than such a process carried out by,
or under the responsibility of, a person in the course of his business as a
pharmacist for the purpose of supplying the exempted preparation to another
person.
medical practitioner means a person
authorised to practice as a medical practitioner under the law of a State, a
Territory or another country.
report week means each period that is set out
as being a
report week in a notice published in accordance with subregulation (19).
Secretary means the Secretary to the
Department.
Single Convention means the Single Convention
on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, being the Convention of that name that was adopted and
opened for signature at New York on 30 March 1961, as amended and existing on the
commencement of this regulation.
year means a period of 12 months commencing
on 1 January.
5A Importation
of antibiotic substances
(1) Subject to subregulations (2), (2A) and (3),
the importation into Australia of a therapeutic substance that is an antibiotic
substance is prohibited unless a permission in writing to import the substance
has been granted by the Secretary or an authorised person.
(2) Subregulation
(1) does not apply to a substance:
(a) that is for the personal use of a passenger,
or a relative of a passenger, on a ship or an aircraft; and
(b) that is brought to Australia on that ship or
aircraft; and
(c) the amount of which does not exceed 3
months’ supply for a person at the maximum dosage recommended by the
manufacturer of the substance.
(2A) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a substance if:
(a) the substance is required for the use of an
animal that is being imported and is under the care of a passenger on the same
ship or aircraft; and
(b) the amount of the substance does not exceed 3
months supply of the substance at the maximum dosage recommended by the
manufacturer of the substance.
(3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a
substance:
(a) imported by a member of a group of persons
visiting Australia to participate in a national or international sporting
event; and
(b) for use in the
treatment of:
(i) a member or members of that group;
or
(ii) an animal that is being imported
and is under the care of the group.
(4) A permission under subregulation (1) in
respect of a therapeutic substance shall be subject to such conditions imposing
requirements or prohibitions on the person to whom the permission is granted
with respect to:
(a) the custody, use, disposal or distribution
of the therapeutic substance; or
(b) the keeping of
records relating to the therapeutic substance;
as are necessary to ensure that the substance is not used otherwise
than for the purposes for which the Secretary or authorised person grants the
permission.
(5) Where a permission referred to in subregulation
(4) is subject to a condition imposing requirements with respect to the keeping
of records relating to a therapeutic substance, the permission shall be deemed
to be granted subject to compliance by the person to whom it is granted with
the following requirements with respect to any quantity of the therapeutic
substance imported by him into Australia in accordance with the permission:
(a) the person shall, when required to do so by
an authorised officer at any reasonable time of the day, produce the records
kept by him in relation to the substance for examination by the authorised
officer, and permit that officer to take extracts from or copies of the
records; and
(b) the person shall produce to an authorised
officer, at any reasonable time of the day, the quantity of the therapeutic
substance, or of a substance or mixture in the preparation of which any of the
therapeutic substance has been used, that is in his possession, and permit the
officer to examine the substance, to weigh or otherwise ascertain the quantity
of the substance and to take a sample of the substance for further examination
and analysis.
(6) Where:
(a) a permission granted under subregulation (1)
is subject to a condition to be complied with by a person; and
(b) the person fails to comply with the
condition;
then the Secretary may revoke the permission whether or not the
person is charged with an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act in respect
of the failure to comply with the condition or requirement.
(8) In this regulation:
authorised officer means an officer
authorised in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised officer for the
purposes of subregulation (5).
Authorised person means a person authorised
in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised person for the purposes of this
regulation.
relative, in
relation to a person, means:
(a) a spouse,
child, parent or grandparent of the person; and
(b) a person living with the person as his or her
spouse on a permanent domestic basis although not legally married to him or her.
Secretary means the Secretary to the
Department administered by the Minister administering the Therapeutic Goods
Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
A copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao.htm.
5F Reason
for refusal to be given
(1) Where the
Secretary or an authorised person:
(a) refuses a person permission to import a
therapeutic substance specified in subregulation (1) of regulation 5A of these
Regulations;
(b) revokes under subregulation 5A (6) a
permission;
the Secretary or authorised person shall furnish to the person or
licensed importer, as the case may be, a statement, in writing, setting out his
reasons for the refusal or revocation, as the case may be.
(3) Where the Secretary or an authorised person
is prepared to grant a person a permission under subregulation (1) of
regulation 5A of these Regulations but proposes to make the permission subject
to conditions to which the person objects, the Secretary or authorised person
shall furnish to the person a statement in writing setting out his reasons for
including those conditions.
(4) In this regulation:
Secretary means the Secretary to the
Department administered by the Minister administering the Therapeutic Goods
Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
A copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao.htm.
5G Importation
of certain substances
(1) The importation into Australia of a substance
mentioned in Schedule 7A is prohibited unless:
(a) the person importing the substance is the
holder of a permission to import the substance granted in writing by the
Secretary or an authorised officer; and
(b) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a substance if:
(a) the substance is required for the medical
treatment of a person who is a passenger on a ship or aircraft; and
(b) the substance is imported into Australia on
the ship or aircraft; and
(c) the substance was prescribed by a medical
practitioner for that treatment; and
(d) the amount of the substance imported does not
exceed the amount of the substance prescribed by the medical practitioner for
the person receiving the treatment.
(3) However, the exception in subregulation (2) does not
apply to a substance if the substance is required for the medical treatment of:
(a) a person who is a competitor within the
meaning of the Australian Sports Drug Agency Act 1990; or
(b) a person who has come to Australia for
purposes relating to the performance of a competitor or the management of a
competitor or a competitor’s interests.
Examples of purposes mentioned in paragraph (3) (b)
1 Coaching or training a competitor.
2 Providing medical treatment or
physiotherapy to a competitor.
3 Managing a competitor.
4 Managing public relations for a
competitor.
(4) A permission may specify:
(a) conditions or requirements to be complied
with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) when the holder of the permission must comply
with a condition or requirement, whether before or after the importation of the
substance to which the permission relates.
(5) If the holder of a permission does not comply with a
condition or requirement (if any) of the permission, the Secretary may, in
writing, revoke the permission.
(6) In this regulation:
authorised officer means an officer
authorised in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised officer for this
regulation.
medical practitioner means a person
authorised to practice as a medical practitioner under a law of a State, a
Territory or another country.
Secretary
means the Secretary to the Department administered by the Minister
administering the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
A copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao.htm.
5H Importation
of certain goods
(1) In this regulation:
authorised officer means an officer
authorised in writing by the Secretary to be an authorised officer for this
regulation.
Secretary means the Secretary to the Department
administered by the Minister administering the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
A copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao.htm.
(2) The importation into Australia of goods
specified in Schedule 8 to these Regulations is prohibited unless the Secretary
or an authorised officer has, by instrument in writing, granted permission to
import the goods and the instrument is produced to the Collector.
(3) A permission under this regulation shall be
subject to such conditions imposing requirements or prohibitions on the person
to whom the permission is granted with respect to the custody, use, disposal or
destruction of the goods, as the Secretary or authorised officer, as the case
may be, thinks necessary to ensure that the goods are not used otherwise than
for the purpose for which he grants the permission.
(4) Where:
(a) a permission granted under subregulation (2)
is subject to a condition to be complied with by a person; and
(b) the person fails to comply with the
condition;
then the Secretary may revoke the permission whether or not the
person is charged with an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act in respect
of the failure to comply with the condition.
5HA Review
of decisions
(1) In this regulation:
decision has the same meaning as in the Administrative
Appeals Tribunal Act 1975.
Initial decision means a decision:
(a) of the Secretary, or an authorised person,
under subregulation 5 (5), (13), (15), (17) or (18) or 5A (1), (4) or (6); or
(ab) of the Secretary, or an authorised officer,
under subregulation 5G (1) or (5); or
(b) of the Secretary, or an authorised officer,
under subregulation 5H (2) or (4).
Minister means the Minister administering the
Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
Note The latest Administrative
Arrangements Orders mentions
which Minister administers the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.
A copy of the Orders can be found on the internet at http://scaleplus.law.gov.au/home/docs/legtables/aao21oct.htm.
(2) A person whose
interests are affected by an initial decision may request the Minister to
reconsider the decision by notice in writing given to the Minister within 90
days after the decision first comes to the person’s notice.
(3) The Minister must reconsider the initial
decision as soon as practicable after receiving a request under subregulation
(2), and may:
(a) confirm the initial decision; or
(b) revoke the initial decision; or
(c) revoke the initial decision and make a
decision in substitution for that decision.
(4) If a person who has made a request under
subregulation (2) does not receive notice of the decision of the Minister on
reconsideration within 60 days of the making of the request, the Minister is to
be taken to have confirmed the original decision.
(5) After
reconsideration of an initial decision, the Minister must give the applicant a
notice in writing stating:
(a) the result of the reconsideration; and
(b) that the applicant may, except where
subsection 28 (4) of Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1975 applies,
apply for a statement setting out the reasons for the decision on
reconsideration and may, subject to that Act, make an application to the
Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of that decision.
(6) If written notice of the making of an initial
decision is given to a person whose interests are affected by the decision, the
notice is to include a statement to the effect that a person whose interests
are affected by the decision may:
(a) seek a reconsideration of the decision under
this regulation; and
(b) subject to the Administrative Appeals
Tribunal Act 1975, if the person is dissatisfied with the decision upon
reconsideration, make an application to the Administrative Appeals Tribunal for
review of that decision.
(7) Any failure to comply with the requirements
of subregulation (5) or (6) in relation to a decision does not affect the
validity of the decision.
(8) An application may be made to the
Administrative Appeals Tribunal for review of a decision under subregulation
(3).
5I Importation
of certain organochlorine chemicals
(1) In this regulation, authorised officer
means an officer of the Department of Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry
authorised in writing by the Minister for Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry
for the purposes of this regulation.
(2) The importation into Australia of:
(a) goods, being certain organochlorine
chemicals specified in items 2, 3, 10 and 11 of Schedule 9;
(b) goods, being any chemical or compound that
may be derived from an organochlorine chemical so specified and from which such
a chemical may be regenerated; and
(c) goods, being any isomer of an organochlorine
chemical so specified, or any substance derived from such an isomer and from
which such an isomer may be regenerated;
is prohibited unless:
(d) the Minister for Agriculture, Fisheries and
Forestry or an authorised officer has granted a permission in writing to import
the goods; and
(e) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2A) The importation into Australia of:
(a) goods, being certain organochlorine
chemicals specified in items 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 12 and 13 of Schedule 9; and
(b) goods, being any chemical or compound that
may be derived from an organochlorine chemical so specified and from which such
a chemical may be regenerated; and
(c) goods, being any isomer of an organochlorine
chemical so specified, or any substance derived from such an isomer and from
which such an isomer may be regenerated;
is prohibited unless:
(d) if the chemical is an active constituent or a
chemical product as defined in the Agricultural and Veterinary Chemicals Code
set out in the Schedule to the Agricultural and Veterinary Chemicals Code
Act 1994:
(i) a permission to import the
chemical has been granted in writing under the Agricultural and Veterinary
Chemicals (Administration) Regulations 1995; and
(ii) the permission is produced to a
Collector; or
(e) in any other case:
(i) the Minister for Agriculture,
Fisheries and Forestry or an authorised officer has granted a permission in
writing to import the goods; and
(ii) the permission is produced to a
Collector.
(2B) An application for a
permission under paragraph (2) (d) or (2A) (e) must be:
(a) in writing; and
(b) lodged with an authorised officer.
(2C) An authorised officer may ask an applicant for a
permission under paragraph (2) (d) or (2A) (e) to give to the
authorised officer any information that the authorised officer or the Minister
reasonably requires in order to decide whether the permission should be
granted.
(3) Where, in relation to an application for a
permission under subregulation (2) or (2A), an authorised officer has formed an
opinion that the permission should not be granted, the authorised officer shall
refer the application to the Minister for Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry.
(4) Where an application has been referred to the
Minister for Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry under subregulation (3), that
Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission.
(5) A permission granted under subregulation (2),
(2A) or (4) may specify conditions or requirements to be complied with by the
holder of the permission and may, in respect of any such condition or
requirement, specify a time (being a time before or after the importation of
the goods to which the permission relates) at or before which the condition or
requirement shall be complied with by the holder.
(6) Where:
(a) a permission granted under subregulation
(2), (2A) or (4) is subject to a condition or requirement to be complied with
by a person; and
(b) the person fails to comply with the condition
or requirement;
the Minister may revoke the permission whether or not the person is
charged with an offence under subsection 50 (4) of the Act in respect of the
failure to comply with the condition or requirement.
5J Importation
of goods containing certain chemical compounds
(1) In this regulation:
authorised person means an officer or
employee of the Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade authorised in writing
by the Minister for Foreign Affairs to give permission to import prescribed
goods into Australia for the purposes of this regulation.
CAS number, for a chemical compound, means
the Chemical Abstracts Service number, which is the registry number:
(a) assigned to the compound by the Chemical
Abstracts Service, Columbus, Ohio, United States of America; and
(b) published by the Service in the journal Chemical
Abstracts.
Chemical Weapons Convention means the
Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and
Use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction, opened for signature in Paris
on 13 January 1993.
Prescribed goods means goods containing any
of the following chemical compounds:
(a) a chemical compound mentioned in column 2 of
an item in Part 2, 3 or 4 of Schedule 11;
(b) a chemical compound belonging to a group of
compounds mentioned in column 2 of an item in Part 2, 3 or 4 of
Schedule 11.
Notes
(a) The Chemical Abstracts Service number of a chemical
compound mentioned in column 2 of an item is shown in column 3 of the item.
(b) For chemical compounds mentioned by type in column 2 of
an item in Part 2 of Schedule 11, Chemical Abstracts Service numbers for
compounds comprising the type are not mentioned in column 3.
(2) The importation into Australia of prescribed goods
containing a chemical compound, or a chemical compound belonging to a group of
compounds, mentioned in Part 2 or 3 of Schedule 11 from a country that is not a
State Party to the Chemical Weapons Convention is prohibited absolutely.
(2A) The importation into
Australia of prescribed goods containing a chemical compound, or a chemical
compound belonging to a group of compounds, mentioned in Part 2 or 3 of
Schedule 11 from a country that is a State Party to the Chemical Weapons
Convention is prohibited unless:
(a) the Minister for Foreign Affairs or an
authorised person has given permission in writing to import the goods; and
(b) the permission is produced to the Collector.
(2AA) The importation into Australia of prescribed goods
containing a chemical compound, or a chemical compound belonging to a group of
compounds, mentioned in Part 4 of Schedule 11 is prohibited unless:
(a) the Minister for Foreign Affairs or an
authorised person has given permission in writing to import the goods; and
(b) the permission is produced to a Collector.
(2AB) A permission under paragraph (2A) (a) for prescribed
goods containing a chemical compound, or a chemical compound belonging to a
group of compounds, mentioned in Part 3 of Schedule 11, or under paragraph
(2AA) (a):
(a) may be given for the importation of more
than 1 shipment; and
(b) remains in force for 1 year from the day when
it is given; and
(c) may be renewed for up to 3 further periods
of 1 year.
(2AC) However, subregulations (2), (2A) and (2AA) do not apply
to prescribed goods that contain a chemical compound mentioned in Part 3
(except item 1, 2 or 3) or 4 of Schedule 11, or a chemical compound belonging
to a group of compounds mentioned in Part 3 (except item 1, 2 or 3) or 4
of Schedule 11, if:
(a) the chemical compound is less than 10%, by
weight, of the goods; and
(b) there is no other chemical compound, or
chemical compound belonging to a group of compounds, mentioned in Part 2,
3 or 4 of Schedule 11 in the goods.
(2B) The Minister or an
authorised person must not give permission to import prescribed goods unless an
application for the permission is received at the Australian Safeguards and Non‑proliferation
Office:
(a) for prescribed goods containing a chemical
compound, or a chemical compound belonging to a group of compounds, mentioned
in Part 2 of Schedule 11 — at least 37 days before the day when it is
proposed to import the goods; or
(b) in any other case — at least 7 days
before the first day when it is proposed to import the goods.
(2C) However, subregulation (2B) does not apply to
prescribed goods that contain saxitoxin if:
(a) there is not more than 5 milligrams of
saxitoxin in the goods; and
(b) the goods are to be used for medical or
diagnostic purposes only; and
(c) the goods do not contain any other chemical
compound, or chemical compound belonging to a group of compounds, mentioned in
column 2 of an item in Part 2 of Schedule 11.
(3) If an authorised person dealing with an
application for a permission believes that the permission should not be given:
(a) the authorised person must refer the
application to the Minister for Foreign Affairs; and
(b) that Minister may give, or refuse to give,
the permission.
(4) A permission for the importation of
prescribed goods may:
(a) include conditions or requirements to be
complied with by the holder of the permission; and
(b) set a time (being a time before or after the
importation of the goods to which the permission relates) at or before which a
condition or requirement must be complied with by the holder.
(5) The Minister for Foreign Affairs may revoke a
permission if:
(a) it is subject to a condition or requirement;
and
(b) the holder
fails to comply with the condition or requirement (whether or not the person is
charged with an offence against subsection 50 (4) of the Act in respect of the
failure to comply with the condition or requirement).
5K Importation of ozone‑depleting
substances and synthetic greenhouse gases
(1) The importation into Australia (except from an
external Territory) of:
(a) a substance mentioned in column 2 of an item
in Schedule 10; or
(b) pre‑charged
equipment;
is prohibited.
(2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if a
licence to import the substance or equipment has been granted under section 16
of the Ozone Protection and Synthetic Greenhouse Gas Management Act 1989
and the licence, or a copy of the licence, is produced to a Collector.
(3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a substance
that is:
(a) contained in goods (except pre‑charged
equipment) that will use the substance in the operation of the goods (for
example, an aerosol spray device); or
(b) present in goods because the substance was
used in the manufacturing process for the goods.
(4) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a CFC, HCFC
or SGG in relation to which all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) the CFC, HCFC or SGG is on board a ship or
aircraft;
(b) the ship or aircraft has air conditioning or
refrigeration equipment;
(c) the CFC, HCFC or SGG is exclusively for use
in meeting the reasonable servicing requirements of that equipment during, or
in connection with, 1 or more periods when the ship or aircraft is or will be
engaged in a journey between:
(i) a place in Australia and a place
outside Australia; or
(ii) 2 places outside Australia.
(5) Subregulation (1) does not apply to an SGG that
is imported for use as a cover gas in the manufacture and casting of magnesium.
(6) Subregulation (1) does not apply to pre‑charged
equipment in relation to which paragraph 68 (1) (d) of the Act
applies.
Note Paragraph 68 (1) (d) of the
Act applies to personal or household effects of a passenger, or a member of a
crew, of a ship or aircraft.
(7) In this regulation:
pre‑charged equipment means air‑conditioning
equipment, or refrigeration equipment, (including equipment fitted to a motor
vehicle) that contains an HFC or HCFC.
6 Regulations
do not derogate from any other law
The provisions of these Regulations are in addition
to, and do not derogate from, the operation of any other law of the
Commonwealth relating to the importation of goods into Australia.
7 Repeal
The Customs (Prohibited Imports) Regulations
(comprising the Statutory Rules specified in Schedule 5 to these Regulations)
are repealed.
The
Schedules
Schedule 1 Goods the
importation of which is prohibited absolutely
(regulation
3)
|
Item
|
Description of Goods
|
|
2
|
Advertising matter
relating to any goods covered by this Schedule
|
|
26
|
Dogs of the following
breeds:
|
|
|
(a) dogo Argentino;
|
|
|
(b) fila Brasileiro;
|
|
|
(c) Japanese tosa;
|
|
|
(d) American pit
bull terrier or pit bull terrier;
|
|
|
(e) Perro de Presa
Canario or Presa Canario
|
|
27
|
Viable material derived from human embryo
clones
|
Schedule
2 Goods the importation of which is
prohibited unless the permission in writing of the Minister or an authorised
person has been granted
(subregulation 4 (1))
|
Item
|
Description of Goods
|
|
2
|
Toys coated with a material the non‑volatile content
of which contains more than:
|
|
|
(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or
|
|
|
(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or
|
|
|
(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or
|
|
|
(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or
|
|
|
(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or
|
|
|
(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or
|
|
|
(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or
|
|
|
(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium
|
|
3
|
Cosmetic products containing more than 250 mg/kg of lead
or lead compounds (calculated as lead), except products containing more than
250 mg/kg of lead acetate designed for use in hair treatments
|
|
6
|
Money boxes coated with a material that contains more than
90 mg/kg of lead
|
|
7
|
Pencils or paint brushes coated with a material the non‑volatile
content of which contains more than:
|
|
|
(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or
|
|
|
(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or
|
|
|
(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or
|
|
|
(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or
|
|
|
(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or
|
|
|
(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or
|
|
|
(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or
|
|
|
(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium
|
|
8
|
Appliances or equipment designed or adapted for warfare or
like purposes, being any of, or any combination of, the following:
|
|
|
(a) dazzle or decoy devices;
|
|
|
(b) equipment designed or adapted for the making of
smoke screens;
|
|
|
(c) explosives or incendiary materials;
|
|
|
(d) flame throwers;
|
|
|
(e) gases or liquids designed for the purpose of
killing or incapacitating persons, and devices or apparatus designed or
adapted for use with those goods;
|
|
|
(f) grenades of any type, whether charged or not;
|
|
|
(g) large calibre armament, weapons, launchers,
throwers and projectors, whether or not mounted on vehicles, ships or
aircraft, that are designed for grenades, bombs, rockets or any other
missile, ammunition or substance, including the following:
|
|
|
(i) cannon;
|
|
|
(ii) guns, including self‑propelled guns;
|
|
|
(iii) howitzers;
|
|
|
(iv) mortars;
|
|
|
(v) projectile launchers;
|
|
|
(vi) recoilless rifles;
|
|
|
(vii) tank destroyers;
|
|
|
(h) mines (whether charged or not);
|
|
|
(i) projectiles, bombs, rockets or any other missile,
ammunition (other than ammunition to which Part 2 of Schedule 6 applies) or
substance (whether charged or not);
|
|
|
(j) trip flares; and
|
|
|
(k) parts and accessories designed or adapted for, or
for use with, any of the goods in the preceding paragraphs of this item
|
|
9
|
Daggers or similar devices, being sharp pointed stabbing
instruments (not including swords or bayonets):
(a) ordinarily capable of concealment on the person;
and
|
|
|
(b) having:
(i) a flat blade with cutting edges (serrated or
not serrated) along the length of both sides; or
(ii) a needle‑like blade, the cross section
of which is elliptical or has three or more sides; and
(c) made of any material
|
|
10
|
Dog collars incorporating protrusions designed to puncture
or bruise an animal’s skin
|
|
12
|
Hand‑held electric devices that are designed to
administer an electric shock on contact, other than cattle prods designed
exclusively for use with animals
|
|
13
|
Acoustic anti‑personnel devices that are designed:
(a) to cause permanent or temporary incapacity or
disability to a person; or
(b) to otherwise physically disorientate a person
|
|
14
|
Hand‑held battery‑operated devices designed to
discharge a gas or liquid
|
|
15
|
Goods to which, or to the coverings of which, there is
applied a representation of the Arms, a flag or a seal of the Commonwealth or
of a State or Territory of the Commonwealth or a representation so nearly
resembling the Arms, a flag or a seal of the Commonwealth or of a State or
Territory of the Commonwealth as to be likely to deceive
|
|
16
|
Goods to which, or to the coverings of which, there is
applied a representation of the Royal Arms or a representation so nearly
resembling the Royal Arms as to be likely to deceive
|
|
18
|
Blow‑guns or blow‑pipes that are capable of
projecting a dart, or other devices that consist of a pipe or tube through
which a missile in the form of a dart is capable of being projected by:
(a) the exhaled breath of the user; or
(b) another means other than an explosive
|
|
18A
|
Darts capable of being projected from:
(a) a blow‑gun or blow‑pipe; or
(b) another device that consists of a pipe or tube
through which a missile in the form of a dart is capable of being projected
by:
(i) the exhaled breath of the user; or
(ii) another means other than an explosive
|
|
18B
|
Goods of the kind known as nunchakus
|
|
18C
|
Crossbows that, when discharged, are capable of causing:
(a) damage to property; or
(b) bodily harm;
other than toy crossbows
|
|
18D
|
Ballistic knives, being knives that discharge a blade as a
projectile by a spring mechanism or other means
|
|
19
|
Flick knives or similar devices, made of any material,
that have a blade folded or recessed into the handle which opens
automatically by:
(a) gravity or centrifugal force; or
(b) pressure applied to a button, spring or device in
or attached to the handle of the device
|
|
19A
|
Knuckle‑dusters or similar devices that can be
fitted over the knuckles of the hand of the user:
(a) to protect the knuckles; and
(b) to increase the effect of a punch or other blow;
whether the device has been manufactured for those
purposes or adapted for those purposes
|
|
20
|
Gloves, or similar coverings for the hand, incorporating
protrusions designed to puncture or bruise the skin
|
|
21
|
Goods incorporating:
(a) a concealed knife of any length, made of any
material; or
(b) a concealed blade of any length, made of any
material; or
(c) a concealed spike of any length, made of any
material
|
|
22
|
Hunting slings, catapults or sling shots designed for use
with, or a component part of which is, a brace that:
|
|
|
(a) fits or rests upon the forearm or upon another part
of the body of the user; and
|
|
|
(b) supports the wrist or forearm against the tension
of any material used to propel a projectile
|
|
23
|
Star knives or similar devices:
(a) consisting of more than one angular point, blade or
spike, disposed outwardly about a central axis point; and
(b) designed to spin around the central axis point in
flight when thrown at a target; and
(c) made of any material
|
|
29A
|
Body armour, protective jackets, protective vests,
protective suits, anti‑ballistic articles or any other similar
articles:
(a) able to be worn, either independently, or as a part
of something else, on the human body; and
(b) designed or adapted to protect the human body from
the effects of a weapon (for example, a knife);
other than anti‑ballistic articles used for eye or
hearing protection
|
|
34
|
Erasers, resembling food in scent or appearance, that
contain more than:
|
|
|
(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or
|
|
|
(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or
|
|
|
(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or
|
|
|
(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or
|
|
|
(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or
|
|
|
(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or
|
|
|
(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or
|
|
|
(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium
|
|
35
|
Sheath knives or similar devices:
(a) having a sheath which withdraws into its handle:
(i) by gravity or centrifugal force; or
(ii) if pressure is applied to a button, spring
or device attached to or forming part of the sheath, handle or blade of the
knife; and
(b) made of any material
|
|
|
36
|
Push knives
or similar devices:
(a) designed as weapons
that consist of a single‑edged or multi‑edged blade or spike
that:
(i) has a handle
fitted transversely to the blade or spike; and
|
|
|
|
(ii) allows the blade or spike to be supported by
the palm of the hand so that stabbing blows or slashes can be inflicted by a
punching or pushing action; and
(b) made of any material
|
|
|
37
|
Trench knives or similar
devices that consist of a single‑edged or multi‑edged blade or
spike:
(a) fitted with a handle
made of any hard substance that can be fitted over the knuckles of the hand
of the user:
(i) to protect
the knuckles; and
(ii) to increase
the effect of a punch or blow; and
(b) made of any
material;
whether the device has been
manufactured for those purposes or adapted for those purposes
|
|
|
38
|
Throwing blades, throwing knives or throwing axes:
(a) designed or modified to be thrown; and
(b) made of any material
|
|
|
39
|
Knives, blades or spikes which are neither metallic nor
ceramic, other than plastic cutlery
|
|
|
40
|
Hand or foot claws, being articles consisting of claws
that are made or modified to be attached to or worn on the hands or feet
|
|
|
41
|
Weighted gloves or similar articles (including a
fingerless glove) consisting of a weighted glove designed or constructed to
be used as a weapon
|
|
|
42
|
Butterfly knives, devices known as ‘balisongs’, or other
devices that consist of a single‑edged or multi‑edged blade or
spike that:
(a) fits within two handles attached to the blade or
spike by transverse pivot pins; and
(b) is capable of being opened by gravity or centrifugal
force
|
|
|
43
|
Shark Darts or similar devices that are designed to expel,
on or after contact, a gas or other substance capable of causing bodily harm
|
|
|
44
|
Dart projectors known as a
‘darchery dartslingers’, or similar devices that are designed to project a
dart by means of an elasticised band
|
|
|
45
|
Maces or similar articles:
(a) capable of causing injury; and
(b) consisting of a club or staff fitted with a flanged
or spiked head;
other than a ceremonial mace made for use solely as a
symbol of authority on ceremonial occasions
|
|
|
46
|
Flails or similar articles
consisting of a staff or handle that has fitted to one end, by any means, a
freely swinging striking part armed with spikes or studded with any
protruding matter
|
|
|
47
|
Extendable or telescopic batons, designed or
adapted so that the length of the baton extends by:
(a) gravity; or
(b) centrifugal force; or
(c) pressure applied to a button, spring or device in
or attached to the handle of the baton
|
|
|
48
|
Hand‑held articles, commonly known as
laser pointers, designed or adapted to emit a laser beam with an accessible
emission level of greater than 1 mW
|
|
Schedule
3 Goods the importation of which is
prohibited unless specified conditions, restrictions or requirements are
complied with
(subregulation 4 (2))
|
Item
|
Description of goods
|
Conditions, restrictions and requirements
|
|
1
|
Anti‑personnel sprays and chemicals for use in the
manufacture of anti‑personnel sprays
|
The goods must not be imported unless:
(a) the following circumstances exist:
(i) the written consent of the Minister, the
Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police or the commissioner (however
designated) of the police force of a State or Territory, is produced to a
Collector;
|
|
|
|
(ii) the goods are imported:
(A) for
the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, including the use of the
Australian Federal Police; or
|
|
|
|
(B) for
the use of a police force of a State or Territory, or a correctional
institution of a State or Territory; or
|
|
|
|
(C) for the use of the Office of the Sheriff of New South Wales; or
|
|
|
|
(D) for
the use of the Department of Primary Industries of Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(E) for
the use of the Department of Sustainability and Environment of Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(F) for
the use of the Office of Police Integrity of Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(G) for
the use of the Department of Primary Industries and Resources of South
Australia; or
|
|
|
|
(b) the following
circumstances exist:
(i) the goods are
imported as part of a contract to which a person in Australia is a party;
|
|
|
|
(ii) the person made the contract with the
intention of supplying the goods to:
(A) the
United Nations; or
(B) the
government of a country other than Australia;
|
|
|
|
in a
manner that will not contravene Australia’s international obligations;
|
|
|
|
(iii) the contract is in force when the goods are
imported
|
|
1A
|
Grenades or canisters, designed for use with anti‑personnel
sprays or anti‑personnel chemicals
|
The goods must not be imported unless:
(a) the following circumstances exist:
(i) the written consent of the Minister, the Commissioner
of the Australian Federal Police or the commissioner (however designated) of
the police force of a State or Territory, is produced to a Collector;
|
|
|
|
(ii) the goods are
imported:
(A) for the purposes of the government of the
Commonwealth, including the use of the Australian Federal Police; or
|
|
|
|
(B) for
the use of a police force of a State or Territory, or a correctional
institution of a State or Territory; or
|
|
|
|
(C) for
the use of the Office of the Sheriff of New South Wales; or
|
|
|
|
(D) for the use of the Department of Primary Industries of
Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(E) for
the use of the Department of Sustainability and Environment of Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(F) for
the use of the Office of Police Integrity of Victoria; or
|
|
|
|
(G) for
the use of the Department of Primary Industries and Resources of South
Australia; or
|
|
|
|
(b) the following
circumstances exist:
(i) the goods are
imported as part of a contract to which a person in Australia is a party;
|
|
|
|
(ii) the person made the contract with the
intention of supplying the goods to:
(A) the
United Nations; or
(B) the
government of a country other than Australia;
in a manner that will not
contravene Australia’s international obligations;
|
|
|
|
(iii) the contract
is in force when the goods are imported
|
|
3
|
Non‑refillable containers containing
hydrofluorocarbons designed for use in the maintenance of refrigerative units
(including air conditioning units)
|
The goods must not be imported unless the written consent
of the Minister for the Environment and Heritage, or an officer of the
Department of the Environment and Heritage who is authorised for this item by
that Minister, is produced to a Collector
|
|
9A
|
Goods that are national cultural property within the
meaning of section 4 of the National Cultural Property (Preservation)
Ordinance 1965‑1970 of Papua New Guinea, as in force immediately
before the commencement of this item
|
The importer shall produce to the Collector the consent in
writing of the Trustees of the Papua New Guinea Public Museum and Art Gallery
to the export or removal of the goods from Papua New Guinea
|
Schedule
3A Goods the importation of which is
prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 4BA
(regulation 4BA)
|
Item
|
Description of goods
|
|
1
|
Fish of the species Dissostichus eleginoides
(commonly known as Patagonian toothfish)
|
|
2
|
Fish of the species Dissostichus mawsoni (commonly
known as Antarctic toothfish)
|
Schedule
3B Permitted importation of chrysotile
(paragraph 4C (5) (a))
|
Item
|
Uses for which permission may be granted
|
Deadline for importation
|
|
4
|
Use by the Department of Defence or the Australian Defence
Force of chrysotile in a part or component of a plant, if:
(a) the unavailability of the part or component
prevents the plant from being available for use; and
(b) the unavailability of the plant prevents a mission
from being undertaken; and
(c) there is no reasonable alternative to the use of
chrysotile
|
31 December 2010
|
Schedule
4 Drugs
(regulation 5)
|
Item
|
Description of drugs
|
|
1
|
Acetorphine
|
|
2
|
Acetyl‑alpha‑methylfentanyl
|
|
2A
|
N‑acetylanthranilic
acid
|
|
3
|
Acetyldihydrocodeine
|
|
4
|
Acetylmethadol
|
|
5
|
Alfentanil
|
|
6
|
Allylprodine
|
|
7
|
Alphacetylmethadol
|
|
8
|
Alphameprodine
|
|
9
|
Alphamethadol
|
|
10
|
Alphamethylfentanyl
|
|
11
|
Alphamethylthiofentanyl
|
|
12
|
Alphaprodine
|
|
13
|
Alprazolam
|
|
14
|
3‑(2‑aminopropyl)
indole
|
|
14A
|
Aminorex
|
|
15
|
Amphecloral
|
|
16
|
Amphetamine, but not
including levoamphetamine
|
|
17
|
Anileridine
|
|
18
|
Barbiturates belonging
to the class of 5,5‑disubstituted barbituric and thiobarbituric acids,
including compounds structurally derived from those acids
|
|
19
|
Benzethidine
|
|
20
|
Benzphetamine
|
|
21
|
Benzylmorphine
|
|
22
|
Betacetylmethadol
|
|
23
|
Betahydroxyfentanyl
|
|
24
|
Betahydroxy‑3‑methylfentanyl
|
|
25
|
Betameprodine
|
|
26
|
Betamethadol
|
|
27
|
Betaprodine
|
|
28
|
Bezitramide
|
|
29
|
Bromazepam
|
|
30
|
4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine
|
|
30A
|
4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine
(otherwise known as
2‑CB)
|
|
30B
|
Brotizolam
|
|
31
|
Bufotenine
|
|
32
|
Buprenorphine
|
|
32A
|
Butorphanol
|
|
33
|
Camazepam
|
|
34
|
Cannabinoids
|
|
35
|
Cannabis
|
|
36
|
Cannabis resin
|
|
36A
|
Carfentanyl
|
|
37
|
Cathine
|
|
38
|
Cathinone
|
|
39
|
Chlordiazepoxide
|
|
40
|
Chlorphentermine
|
|
41
|
Clobazam
|
|
42
|
Clonazepam
|
|
43
|
Clonitazene
|
|
44
|
Clorazepate
|
|
45
|
Clotiazepam
|
|
46
|
Cloxazolam
|
|
47
|
Cocaine, including the
leaf of any plant of any species of the genus Erythroxylon from which
cocaine can be extracted, either directly or by chemical transformation
|
|
48
|
Codeine
|
|
49
|
Codoxime
|
|
50
|
Delorazepam
|
|
51
|
Desomorphine
|
|
52
|
Dexamphetamine
|
|
53
|
Dextromoramide
|
|
54
|
Dextropropoxyphene
|
|
55
|
Diampromide
|
|
56
|
Diazepam
|
|
57
|
Diethylpropion
(otherwise known as amfepramone)
|
|
58
|
Diethylthiambutene
|
|
59
|
N,N‑diethyltryptamine
|
|
60
|
Difenoxin
|
|
61
|
Dihydrocodeine
|
|
62
|
Dihydromorphine
|
|
63
|
Dimenoxadol
|
|
64
|
Dimepheptanol
(otherwise known as methadol)
|
|
65
|
2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine
|
|
66
|
2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑ethylamphetamine
|
|
66A
|
2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑ethylthiophenethylamine
(otherwise known as 2C‑T‑2)
|
|
66B
|
2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑iodophenethylamine
(otherwise known as 2C‑1)
|
|
67
|
2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑methylamphetamine
|
|
67A
|
2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑n‑propylthiophenethylamine
(otherwise known as 2C‑T‑7)
|
|
68
|
1‑dimethylamino‑1,2‑diphenylethane
|
|
68A
|
Dimethylheptyl‑delta‑3‑tetrahydrocannabinol
(otherwise known as DMHP)
|
|
69
|
Dimethylthiambutene
|
|
70
|
N,N‑dimethyltryptamine
|
|
71
|
Dioxaphetyl butyrate
|
|
72
|
Diphenoxylate
|
|
73
|
Dipipanone
|
|
74
|
Drotebanol
|
|
75
|
Ecgonine
|
|
76
|
Ephedrine
|
|
77
|
Ergometrine
|
|
78
|
Ergot
|
|
79
|
Ergotamine
|
|
80
|
Estazolam
|
|
81
|
Ethchlorvynol
|
|
82
|
Ethinamate
|
|
83
|
N‑ethylamphetamine
|
|
84
|
N‑ethyl‑methylenedioxyamphetamine
(otherwise known as N‑ethyl MDA)
|
|
85
|
Ethyl loflazepate
|
|
86
|
Ethylmethylthiambutene
|
|
87
|
Ethylmorphine
|
|
88
|
Etonitazene
|
|
89
|
Etorphine
|
|
90
|
Etoxeridine
|
|
90A
|
Etryptamine (otherwise
known as 3‑(2‑aminobutyl)indole)
|
|
91
|
Fencamfamin
|
|
92
|
Fenetylline
|
|
93
|
Fenproporex
|
|
94
|
Fentanyl
|
|
95
|
Fludiazepam
|
|
96
|
Flunitrazepam
|
|
97
|
Flurazepam
|
|
98
|
Furethidine
|
|
98A
|
Gammabutyrolactone
|
|
99
|
Glutethimide
|
|
100
|
Halazepam
|
|
101
|
Haloxazolam
|
|
102
|
Harmaline (otherwise known as 4,9‑dihydro‑7‑methoxy‑1‑methy‑l‑(3H)pyrido(3,4‑b)indole),
except when occurring naturally as a component of the herb tribulus
terrestris
|
|
103
|
Harmine (otherwise known as 7‑methoxyharman), except
when occurring naturally as a component of the herb tribulus terrestris
|
|
104
|
Heroin (otherwise
known as diacetylmorphine)
|
|
105
|
Hydrocodone
|
|
106
|
Hydromorphinol
|
|
107
|
Hydromorphone
|
|
108
|
Hydroxyamphetamine
|
|
108A
|
4‑hydroxybutanoic
acid
|
|
109
|
N‑hydroxy‑methylenedioxyamphetamine
(otherwise known as N‑hydroxy MDA)
|
|
110
|
Hydroxypethidine
|
|
111
|
Ibogaine
|
|
112
|
Isomethadone
|
|
112A
|
Isosafrole
|
|
112B
|
Kava
|
|
113
|
Ketazolam
|
|
114
|
Ketobemidone
|
|
115
|
Levamphetamine
|
|
116
|
Levomethamphetamine
|
|
117
|
Levomethorphan
|
|
118
|
Levomoramide
|
|
119
|
Levophenacylmorphan
|
|
120
|
Levorphanol
|
|
121
|
Loprazolam
|
|
122
|
Lorazepam
|
|
123
|
Lormetazepam
|
|
124
|
Lysergamide
|
|
125
|
Lysergic acid
|
|
126
|
Lysergide
|
|
127
|
Mazindol
|
|
128
|
Mecloqualone
|
|
129
|
Medazepam
|
|
130
|
Mefenorex
|
|
131
|
Meprobamate
|
|
132
|
Meprodine
|
|
133
|
Mescaline
|
|
133A
|
Mesocarb
|
|
134
|
Metamfetamine racemate
|
|
135
|
Metazocine
|
|
136
|
Methadone
|
|
137
|
Methadone
intermediate (otherwise known as 4‑cyano‑2‑dimethylamino‑4,4‑diphenylbutane)
|
|
138
|
Methaqualone
|
|
138A
|
Methcathinone
|
|
139
|
Methorphan, but not
including dextromethorphan
|
|
139A
|
5‑methoxy‑alpha‑methyltryptamine
(otherwise known as 5‑MeO‑AMT)
|
|
139B
|
5‑methoxy‑N,N‑diisopropyltryptamine
(otherwise known as 5‑MeO‑DiPT)
|
|
140
|
5‑methoxy‑3,4‑methylenedioxyamphetamine
|
|
141
|
4‑methylaminorex
|
|
142
|
Methylamphetamine
|
|
143
|
Methyl desorphine
|
|
144
|
Methyldihydromorphine
|
|
145
|
3,4‑methylenedioxyamphetamine
|
|
146
|
3,4‑methylenedioxymethamphetamine
|
|
146A
|
3,4‑methylenedioxyphenyl‑2‑propanone
|
|
147
|
3‑methylfentanyl
|
|
147A
|
N‑methyl‑1‑(3,4‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑butanamine
(otherwise known as MBDB)
|
|
148
|
Methylphenidate
|
|
149
|
1‑methyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑propionoxypiperidine
|
|
149A
|
4‑methylthioamphetamine
(otherwise known as 4‑MTA)
|
|
150
|
3‑methylthiofentanyl
|
|
151
|
Methyprylon
|
|
152
|
Metopon
|
|
153
|
Midazolam
|
|
154
|
Moramide intermediate
(otherwise known as 2‑methyl‑3‑morpholino‑1,1‑diphenylpropane carboxylic acid)
|
|
155
|
Morphan, but not
including dextrorphanol
|
|
156
|
Morpheridine
|
|
157
|
Morphine
|
|
158
|
Morphine methobromide
|
|
159
|
Morphine‑N‑oxide
|
|
160
|
Myrophine
|
|
161
|
Nicocodine
|
|
162
|
Nicodicodine
|
|
163
|
Nicomorphine
|
|
164
|
Nimetazepam
|
|
165
|
Nitrazepam
|
|
166
|
Noracymethadol
|
|
167
|
Norcodeine
|
|
168
|
Nordazepam
|
|
169
|
Norlevorphanol
|
|
170
|
Normethadone
|
|
171
|
Normorphine
|
|
172
|
Norpipanone
|
|
173
|
Opium
|
|
174
|
Oxazepam
|
|
175
|
Oxazolam
|
|
176
|
Oxycodone
|
|
177
|
Oxymorphone
|
|
178
|
Para‑fluorofentanyl
|
|
179
|
Paramethoxyamphetamine
|
|
180
|
PCE (otherwise known
as N‑ethyl‑1‑phenylcyclohexylamine)
|
|
181
|
Pemoline
|
|
182
|
Pentazocine
|
|
183
|
Pethidine
|
|
184
|
Pethidine intermediate
A (otherwise known as 4‑cyano‑1‑methyl‑4‑phenylpiperidine)
|
|
185
|
Pethidine intermediate
B (otherwise known as 4‑phenylpiperidine‑4‑carboxylic acid
ethyl ester)
|
|
186
|
Pethidine
intermediate C (otherwise known as 1‑methyl‑4‑phenylpiperidine‑4‑carboxylic
acid)
|
|
187
|
Phenadoxone
|
|
188
|
Phenampromide
|
|
189
|
Phenazocine
|
|
190
|
Phencyclidine
|
|
191
|
Phendimetrazine
|
|
192
|
Phenmetrazine
|
|
193
|
Phenomorphan
|
|
194
|
Phenoperidine
|
|
195
|
Phentermine
|
|
195A
|
Phenylacetic acid
|
|
196
|
1‑phenylethyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑acetoxypiperidine
|
|
196A
|
Phenylpropanolamine
|
|
197
|
Phenyl‑2‑propanone
|
|
198
|
Pholcodine
|
|
199
|
PHP or PCPY (otherwise
known as 1‑(1‑phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine)
|
|
200
|
Piminodine
|
|
201
|
Pinazepam
|
|
201A
|
Piperonal
|
|
202
|
Pipradrol
|
|
203
|
Piritramide
|
|
204
|
Plants and parts of
plants of the species Argyreia nervosa, Ipomoea hederacea, Ipomoea
tricolor, Ipomoea violacea, Papaver bracteatum, Piptadenia peregrina
(Anadenanthera peregrina) or Rivea corymbosa or of any species of
the genus Lophophora Coulter
|
|
205
|
Poppy straw
|
|
206
|
Prazepam
|
|
207
|
Prodine
|
|
208
|
Proheptazine
|
|
209
|
Properidine
|
|
210
|
Propiram
|
|
211
|
Propylhexedrine
|
|
212
|
Pseudoephedrine
|
|
213
|
Psilocine (otherwise
known as 3‑(2‑dimethylaminoethyl)‑4‑hydroxyindole),
including all fungi that contain psilocine
|
|
214
|
Psilocybine, including
all fungi that contain psilocybine
|
|
215
|
Pyrovalerone
|
|
216
|
Racemethorphan
|
|
217
|
Racemoramide
|
|
218
|
Racemorphan
|
|
218AA
|
Remifentanil
|
|
218A
|
Safrole
|
|
219
|
Seeds
of the plant of the species Papaver somniferum (otherwise known as
opium poppy)
|
|
220
|
Sufentanil
|
|
221
|
TCP (otherwise known
as 1‑(1‑(2‑thienyl) cyclohexyl) piperidine
|
|
222
|
Temazepam
|
|
223
|
Tetrahydrocannabinols,
including all alkyl homologues of tetrahydrocannabinols
|
|
224
|
Tetrazepam
|
|
225
|
Thebacon
|
|
226
|
Thebaine
|
|
227
|
Thiofentanyl
|
|
228
|
Tilidine
|
|
229
|
Triazolam
|
|
230
|
Trimeperidine
|
|
231
|
3,4,5,‑trimethoxyamphetamine
|
|
232
|
Zipeprol
|
|
233
|
Zolpidem
|
Schedule
5 Statutory Rules repealed
(regulation 7)
Statutory Rules 1934, No. 152
Statutory Rules 1935, No. 19
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 18
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 38
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 59
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 69
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 86
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 92
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 97
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 104
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 136
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 162
Statutory Rules 1936, No. 166
Statutory Rules 1937, No. 2
Statutory Rules 1938, No. 7
Statutory Rules 1938, No. 40
Statutory Rules 1938, No. 49
Statutory Rules 1938, No. 72
Statutory Rules 1938, No. 85
Statutory Rules 1939, No. 9
Statutory Rules 1939, No. 22
Statutory Rules 1939, No. 37
Statutory Rules 1939, No. 138
Statutory Rules 1939, No. 161
Statutory Rules 1940, No. 146
Statutory Rules 1940, No. 168
Statutory Rules 1940, No. 210
Statutory Rules 1941, No. 84
Statutory Rules 1942, No. 323
Statutory Rules 1943, No. 11
Statutory Rules 1945, No. 34
Statutory Rules 1945, No. 144
Statutory Rules 1946, No. 59
Statutory Rules 1946, No. 77
Statutory Rules 1946, No. 169
Statutory Rules 1947, No. 66
Statutory Rules 1947, No. 81
Statutory Rules 1947, No. 119
Statutory Rules 1947, No. 164
Statutory Rules 1948, No. 35
Statutory Rules 1948, No. 145
Statutory Rules 1949, No. 18
Statutory Rules 1949, No. 87
Statutory Rules 1949, No. 94
Statutory Rules 1951, No. 5
Statutory Rules 1951, No. 75
Statutory Rules 1951, No. 141
Statutory Rules 1952, No. 114
Statutory Rules 1953, No. 10
Statutory Rules 1953, No. 56
Statutory Rules 1953, No. 77
Statutory Rules 1956, No. 40
Schedule
6 Requirements for the importation of
firearms, firearm accessories, firearm parts, firearms magazines, ammunition,
components of ammunition and replicas
(regulation 4F)
Part 1 Tests
A reference in column 3 of Part 2 of this Schedule
to compliance with a test means compliance in the following manner:
1. Official
purposes test
1.1 The importation of an article, being a firearm, a
firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine, ammunition or a
component of ammunition to which the official purposes test relates, complies
with the test if the importer of the article produces to a Collector, at or
before importation, the written permission of the Attorney‑General for
the importation of the article.
1.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the article is for the purposes of the
government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; and
(b) the ownership arrangements for the article
are, or will be, in accordance with subitem 1.4; and
(c) the importer holds a licence or
authorisation to possess the article for the importer’s intended use in
accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the article is to be
used.
1.3 For paragraph 1.2 (a), examples of an article the
importation of which is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth,
a State or a Territory are:
(a) an article to be supplied to the government
under a contract in force when the article is to be imported; and
(b) an article to be shown to the government to
demonstrate its uses; and
(c) an article that the government proposes to
inspect, test or evaluate; and
(d) an article that the government proposes to
use for training; and
(e) an article that has been given or donated to
the government; and
(f) an article that is to be consumed or
destroyed in the course of testing related to a contract with the government of
the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory.
1.4 For paragraph 1.2 (b), the ownership arrangements
for an article are set out in the following table:
Table
|
Item
|
Article
|
Ownership arrangements
|
|
1
|
An
article that is to be supplied to the government of the Commonwealth, a State
or a Territory under a contract
|
Either:
(a) the government must own the article at the time of
importation, and must retain ownership; or
(b) the government must intend to acquire ownership of
the article in a period that the Attorney‑General considers appropriate
(to be specified in the Attorney‑General’s permission), and must retain
ownership
Note See item 3 of Part 3.
|
|
2
|
An
article that:
(a) is to be shown to the government of the
Commonwealth, a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses; or
|
The
article may be owned by any person
Note See item 3 of Part 3.
|
|
|
(b) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a
Territory proposes to inspect, test, evaluate or use for training; or
(c) is to be consumed or destroyed in the course of
testing related to a contract with the government; or
(d) is to be exhibited at a museum by the government of
the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory.
|
|
|
3
|
An article that has been given or donated to
the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory
|
All of the following:
(a) the article must have been given or donated to the
government before importation;
(b) the government must own the article at the time of
importation;
(c) the government must retain ownership
|
|
4
|
Any
other article
|
The
government must:
(a) own the article at the time of importation; and
(b) retain ownership
|
2. Specified purposes test
2.1 The importation of an article, being a firearm, a
firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine, ammunition or a
component of ammunition to which the specified purposes test relates, complies
with the test if the importer of the article produces to a Collector, at or before
importation, the written permission of the Attorney‑General for the
importation of the article.
2.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the article:
(i) is of a
type not available in Australia; and
(ii) is to be
used in connection with the production of a film in a State or Territory in
which the importer holds a licence or authorisation in accordance with the law
of the State or Territory to possess an article of that type and for
that use; and
(iii) is not
to be used in an advertisement, a music video or another type of film promoting
music or a product; or
(b) the article is of a type not available in
Australia, and is to be used in the development of mountings for a laser target
designator in a State or Territory in which the importer holds a licence or
authorisation in accordance with the law of the State or Territory to possess
an article of that type and for that use; or
(c) the article is ammunition, or a component of
ammunition, to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the ammunition, or the component
of ammunition, is to be imported as part of a contract to which a person in
Australia is a party;
(ii) the person made the contract with
the intention of supplying the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, to a
person outside Australia, in a manner that will not contravene Australia’s
international obligations;
(iii) the contract will be in force
when the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, is to be imported;
(iv) the Minister for Defence, or a
person authorised for regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports)
Regulations 1958, has stated, in writing, that a licence or permission to
export the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, will be granted under
that regulation; or
(d) the article is to be imported in the
following circumstances:
(i) the article is to be imported for
repairs, modification or testing, or for use in training, research or development,
in a State or Territory;
(ii) the article is to be imported
under a contract in force with:
(A) the government of the
Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(B) the government of a
country other than Australia; or
(C) the United Nations;
(iii) the importer holds a licence or
authorisation to possess the article for a purpose mentioned in subparagraph
(i) in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the article is
to be repaired, modified or tested, or used in training, research or
development;
(iv) the Minister for Defence, or a
person authorised under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports)
Regulations 1958, has stated, in writing, that a licence or permission to
export the article after the repairs, modification or testing, or use in
training, research or development, will be granted under that regulation; or
(e) the article is to be imported in the
following circumstances:
(i) the article is to be imported only
for transhipment to another country;
(ii) the
Minister for Defence or a person authorised for regulation 13E of the Customs
(Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958, has granted a licence or permission
to export the article; or
(f) the article is to be imported in the
following circumstances:
(i) the article is to be imported for
use in a defence‑sanctioned activity;
(ii) the article is owned by the
defence force of another country;
(iii) the article is to be imported
by:
(A) the defence force that
is the owner of the article; or
(B) a member of that defence
force to whom the article has been issued;
(iv) the defence force has been invited
to participate in a defence‑sanctioned activity;
(v) the Minister for Defence, or a
person authorised under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports)
Regulations 1958, has stated, in writing, that a licence or permission to
export the article after close of the defence‑sanctioned activity, will
be granted under that regulation; or
(g) the article is to be imported in the
following circumstances:
(i) the importer’s principal or sole
occupation is the business of researching or developing firearms technology or
other defence and law enforcement related products;
(ii) the importer has a proven history
of developing or producing firearms technology or other defence and law
enforcement related products for the government of the Commonwealth, a State or
a Territory;
(iii) the importer holds a licence or
authorisation to possess the article for research or development purposes in
accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the article is to be
used in research or development;
(iv) the article:
(A) is being imported for
the completion of a specific project or tender; and
(B) will be allowed to
remain in the country for a specified period of time, commensurate with that
project or tender; and
(C) will be exported or
destroyed once that period of time has expired;
(v) the Minister for Defence, or a
person authorised under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports)
Regulations 1958, has stated, in writing, that a licence or permission to
export the article after the use in research or development will be granted
under that regulation;
(vi) the Attorney‑General is
satisfied that the article will be secured appropriately in Australia.
Examples of a film for paragraph 2.2 (a)
• a cinematographic film
• a film or documentary made specifically for
television
• a television program or series.
3. Specified person test
3.1 The importation of an article, being a firearm, a
firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine, ammunition or a
component of ammunition to which the specified person test relates, complies
with the test if the importer of the article produces to a Collector, at or
before importation, the written permission of the Attorney‑General for
the importation of the article.
3.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the importer of the article is a person
whose principal or only occupation is the business of controlling vertebrate
pest animals on rural land; and
(b) the importer holds a licence or
authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which
the importer will carry out that occupation, to possess the article for the
purpose of carrying out that occupation.
4. Police authorisation test
4.1 The importation of an article, being a firearm, a
firearm accessory, a firearm part, a firearm magazine, ammunition, a component
of ammunition or a replica to which the police authorisation test relates,
complies with the test if:
(a) the importer of the article has been given a
statement, in an approved form, by a relevant police representative to the
effect that the importer holds a licence or authorisation according to the law
of the relevant State or Territory to possess the article, or that a licence or
authorisation to possess the article is not required under the law of the
relevant State or Territory; and
(b) for a category C article — the importer
has also been given a certificate, in an approved form, by a relevant police
representative certifying that the importer is a primary producer; and
(c) for a
category H article (except a category H article to which subitem 4.2
applies) — the importer has also been given a certificate, in an approved
form, by a relevant police representative certifying that the importer:
(i) is a certified sports shooter for
the article; or
(ii) is a certified international
sports shooter for the article; or
(iii) is certified for business or
occupational purposes for the article; or
(iv) is a certified collector for the
article; and
(d) the importer produces to a Collector, at or
before importation:
(i) the statement in the approved
form; and
(ii) if the article is a category C or
category H article, the certificate in the approved form.
Note The importer can produce the
statement, or statement and certificate, personally or by an agent, eg a
firearm dealer.
4.2 This subitem applies to a category H article if the
importer of the article is the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a
Territory.
5. Sports shooter test
5.1 The importation of a restricted category C article
complies with the sports shooter test if the importer of the article produces
to a Collector, at or before importation, the written permission of the
Attorney‑General for the importation of the article.
5.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the importer is a
certified sports shooter for the article.
5A. International sports shooter test
5A.1 The importation of a restricted category C article
complies with the international sports shooter test if the importer of the
article produces to a Collector, at or before importation, the written
permission of the Attorney‑General for the importation of the article.
5A.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the importer is a
certified international sports shooter for the article.
6. Dealer
test — category C article
6.1 The importation of a category C article complies with
the dealer test if the importer of the article produces to a Collector, at or
before importation, the written permission of the Attorney‑General for
the importation of the article.
6.2 The Attorney‑General
must not give written permission for the importation of the article unless the
Attorney‑General is satisfied that:
(a) the importer is a licensed firearm dealer;
and
(b) if the importation of the article is stated
by the importer to be for demonstration or testing purposes:
(i) the article is to be used by the
importer for the purpose of demonstrating its uses or for inspection, testing
or evaluation purposes; and
(ii) the
importation of the article will not result in the importer having in Australia
(excluding any category C article imported in compliance with a test other
than the dealer test):
(A) more than one of a
particular model of category C article that has been imported for demonstration
or testing purposes; or
(B) more than a total of 5
category C articles that have been imported for demonstration or testing
purposes.
7. Dealer
test — category H article
7.1 The importation of a category H article complies with
the dealer test if:
(a) the importer carries on the business of a
firearm dealer; and
(b) the importer of the article has been given a
statement, in an approved form, by a relevant police representative to the
effect that:
(i) the importer holds a licence or
authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the
importer carries on the business, to possess category H articles for the
purpose of the importer’s business; and
(ii) the licence or authorisation has
not been suspended, cancelled or otherwise ceased to have effect; and
(c) the importer gives the statement to a
Collector at or before importation.
Note The importer may give the statement
to a Collector personally or by an agent, for example, an employee of the
importer.
8. Returned
goods test
8.1 The importation of:
(a) a firearm; or
(b) a firearm accessory; or
(c) a firearm part; or
(d) a firearm magazine; or
(e) ammunition; or
(f) a component of ammunition;
to which the returned goods test relates complies with the returned
goods test if the importer of the article produces to a Collector, at or before
importation, the written permission of the Attorney‑General for the
importation of the article.
8.2 The Attorney‑General must not give written
permission for the importation of the article unless the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the article had previously been exported in
accordance with a licence or permission under regulation 13E of the Customs
(Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958; and
(b) the last importation (if any) of the article
before that export:
(i) was a lawful importation; and
(ii) was not
subject to a condition that the article was to be exported after
importation; and
(c) no modification of the article has been
carried out since that export; and
(d) the importer
holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for the importer’s
intended use in accordance with the laws of the State or Territory in which the
importer resides.
8.3 In subitem 8.2:
modification does not include repairs.
Part 2 Requirements for specific firearms, firearm accessories,
firearm parts, firearm magazines, ammunition, components of ammunition and
replicas
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Firearm, firearm accessory, firearm part, firearm
magazine, ammunition, component of ammunition or replica
|
Column 3
Requirements
|
|
1
|
Any of the following
firearms, other than a firearm:
(a) that is:
(i) fitted, whether by original design or by
modification, with a folding or detachable stock; and
(ii) capable of being fired when the stock is in
the folded position or removed; or
(b) that is substantially the
same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm.
Air rifle.
Soft air rifle.
Rimfire rifle, other
than a self‑loading rimfire rifle.
Single shot shotgun.
Double barrel shotgun.
|
For a firearm, other
than a soft air rifle:
(a) the importation
must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(i) the
official purposes test;
(ii) the
specified purposes test;
(iii) the
specified person test;
(iv) the
Police authorisation test; and
(b) if the
firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900 — the firearm
must bear a unique serial number; and
|
|
|
|
(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the
firearm — the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out
in the item.
|
|
|
|
For a soft air rifle:
(a) the importation must comply with the Police authorisation test;
and
(b) if the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January
1900 — the firearm must bear a unique serial number; and
(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the
firearm — the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out
in the item.
|
|
1A
|
A replica of a firearm
mentioned in item 1, other than a replica that is fitted, whether by original
design or by modification, with a folding or detachable stock.
|
The importation must
comply with the Police authorisation test.
|
|
2
|
Any
of the following firearms, other than a firearm:
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the Police authorisation test.
|
|
|
(a) that is:
(i) fitted, whether by original design or by
modification, with a folding or detachable stock; and
(ii) capable of being fired when the stock is in
the folded position or removed; or
(b) that is substantially the same in
appearance as a fully automatic firearm.
Muzzle‑loading
firearm.
Single
shot centre fire rifle.
Double
barrel centre firing rifle.
Repeating
action centre fire rifle.
Break‑action
shotgun/rifle combination.
Repeating
bolt action shot gun.
Lever action shot gun.
|
If
the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900, the
firearm must bear a unique serial number.
If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule
applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements
set out in the item.
|
|
2A
|
A replica of a firearm mentioned in item 2, other
than a replica that is fitted, whether by original design or by modification,
with a folding or detachable stock.
|
The importation must comply with the Police
authorisation test.
|
3
|
Any of the following
firearms, other than a firearm that is:
(a) fitted,
whether by original design or by modification, with a folding or detachable
stock; and
|
For a self‑loading
rimfire rifle:
(a) the
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(i) the official purposes test;
(ii) the specified purposes test;
|
|
|
(b) capable of being fired when the stock
is in the folded position or removed.
Self‑loading rimfire rifle:
(a) without a firearm magazine; or
(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a
capacity no greater than 10 rounds.
Self‑loading
shotgun:
(a) without a firearm magazine; or
(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a
capacity no greater than 5 rounds.
|
(iii) the specified person test;
(iv) the Police authorisation test;
(v) the dealer test;
(vi) the returned goods test; and
(b) if the firearm was manufactured on or after
1 January 1900 — the firearm must bear a unique serial number; and
(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the
firearm — the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out
in the item.
|
|
|
Pump action repeating
shotgun:
(a) without
a firearm magazine; or
(b) fitted
with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 5 rounds.
|
For a self‑loading
shotgun or pump action repeating shotgun:
(a) the
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(i) the
official purposes test;
(ii) the
specified purposes test;
(iii) the
specified person test;
(iv) the
Police authorisation test;
(v) the
sports shooter test;
|
|
|
|
(vi) the international sports shooter test;
(vii) the
dealer test;
(viii) the returned goods test; and
(b) if
the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900 — the
firearm must bear a unique serial number; and
(c) if
item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm — the firearm
must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item.
|
|
3A
|
A replica of a firearm mentioned in item 3, other
than a replica that is fitted, whether by original design or by modification,
with a folding or detachable stock.
|
The importation must comply with the Police
authorisation test.
|
|
4
|
Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 1,
2 or 3 applies, other than a firearm part which is capable of converting,
either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm with a single
or repeating action to a self‑loading or fully automatic firearm.
|
For a part of, or for,
a self‑loading rimfire rifle, the importation must comply with at least
1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
specified person test;
(d) the
Police authorisation test;
(e) the
dealer test;
(f) the
returned goods test.
For a part of, or for,
a self‑loading shotgun or pump action repeating shotgun mentioned in
item 3, the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
specified person test;
(d) the
Police authorisation test;
(e) the
sports shooter test;
(f) the
international sports shooter test;
(g) the
dealer test;
(h) the
returned goods test.
|
|
|
|
For
a part of, or for, another firearm, the importation must comply with at least
1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the Police authorisation test.
|
|
5
|
Firearm accessory for
a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3 or 14A applies.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
6
|
Any
of the following firearms, unless:
(a) fitted, whether by original design or
by modification, with a folding or detachable stock; and
(b) capable of being fired when the stock
is in the folded position or removed.
Self‑loading
centre fire rifle.
Self‑loading
rimfire rifle fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than
10 rounds.
|
The importation must comply with at least 1 of the
following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the returned goods test.
If the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January
1900, the firearm must bear a unique serial number.
If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the
firearm, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the
item.
|
|
|
Self‑loading
shotgun fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 5 rounds.
|
|
|
|
Pump action repeating
shotgun fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 5 rounds.
|
|
|
6A
|
A replica of a firearm
mentioned in item 6, other than a replica that is fitted, whether by original
design or by modification, with a folding or detachable stock.
|
The importation must
comply with the Police authorisation test.
|
|
7
|
Firearm part of, or
for, a firearm to which item 6 applies, other than a firearm part which is capable
of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a
firearm with a single or repeating action to a self‑loading or fully
automatic firearm.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the returned goods test.
|
|
8
|
Firearm accessory for
a firearm to which item 6 applies.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
9
|
Any
of the following firearms (including complete, but disassembled or
unassembled, firearms), unless the firearm:
(a) has a fully automatic firing capability; or
(b) is substantially the same in appearance as a sub‑machine
gun, a machine pistol or a handgun that has a fully automatic firing
capability.
Handgun.
Soft
air handgun.
|
For
a handgun:
(a) the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following
tests:
(i) the official
purposes test;
(ii) the specified
purposes test;
(iii) the specified
person test;
(iv) the Police
authorisation test;
(v) the dealer test;
(vi) the returned
goods test; and
|
|
|
|
(b) if the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January
1900 — the firearm must bear a unique serial number; and
(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the
firearm — the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out
in the item.
For
a soft air handgun:
(a) the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following
tests:
(i) the Police
authorisation test;
(ii) the dealer
test; and
(b) if the firearm was manufactured on of after 1 January
1900 — the firearm must bear a unique serial number; and
(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm —
the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item.
|
|
9A
|
A replica of a firearm
mentioned in item 9, other than a replica that is substantially the same in
appearance as a sub‑machine gun, a machine pistol or a handgun that has
a fully automatic firing capability.
|
The importation must
comply with the Police authorisation test.
|
|
9B
|
A frame or receiver
of, or for, a firearm to which item 9 applies
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
specified person test;
(d) the
Police authorisation test;
(e) the
dealer test;
(f) the
returned goods test.
|
|
10
|
Firearm
part (other than a frame or receiver) of, or for, a firearm to which item 9
applies, other than a firearm part which is capable of converting, either on
its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm with a single or
repeating action to a self‑loading or fully automatic firearm.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the Police authorisation test;
(e) the returned goods test.
|
|
11
|
Firearm accessory for
a firearm to which item 9 applies.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the specified
purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
12
|
Firearm,
not being a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 14A applies.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the returned goods test.
If the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900, the
firearm must bear a unique serial number.
|
|
12A
|
A replica of a firearm,
not being a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6 or 9 applies.
|
The importation must
comply with the Police authorisation test.
|
|
13
|
Firearm
part of, or for, a firearm, not being a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9
or 13A applies.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the returned goods test.
|
|
13A
|
Firearm part which is
capable of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts,
a firearm with a single or repeating action to a self‑loading or fully
automatic firearm.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
14
|
Firearm accessory for
a firearm, not being a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6 or 9 applies.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
14A
|
Any of the following
firearms, unless the firearm:
(a) has a fully automatic firing capability; or
(b) is substantially the same in appearance as a fully
automatic firearm.
Single shot paintball marker
designed exclusively to fire paintballs.
|
The importation must comply
with the Police authorisation test.
If
the firearm was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900, the firearm must
bear a unique serial number.
If
item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must
comply with the safety requirements set out in the item.
|
|
|
Repeating action paintball
marker designed exclusively to fire paintballs.
Self‑loading paintball
marker designed exclusively to fire paintballs.
A firearm part of, or for, a
paintball marker mentioned in this item.
|
|
|
15
|
Detachable firearm
magazine, having a capacity of more than 5 rounds, for:
(a) self‑loading
centre‑fire rifles; or
(b) self‑loading
shotguns or pump‑action shotguns; or
(c) fully
automatic firearms;
whether or not
attached to a firearm.
|
The importation must comply
with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified person test;
(c) the
specified purposes test;
(d) the
returned goods test.
|
|
16
|
Detachable firearm
magazine, having a capacity of more than 10 rounds, for:
(a) rimfire
self‑loading rifles; or
(b) pump‑action
or lever action centre‑fire rifles;
whether or not
attached to a firearm.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
specified person test;
(d) the
returned goods test.
|
|
16A
|
Detachable
firearm magazine, having a capacity of more than 15 rounds, for repeating
action centre‑fire rifles other than a pump‑action or lever
action centre‑fire rifle, whether or not attached to a firearm.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the specified person test;
(d) the returned goods test.
|
|
17
|
Firearm
magazine, other than a firearm magazine to which item 15, 16 or 16A applies,
whether or not attached to a firearm.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the Police authorisation test;
(c) the specified purposes test;
(d) the returned goods test.
|
|
18
|
Device that increases
the capacity of an integral firearm magazine or a tubular firearm magazine,
whether or not attached to a firearm.
|
The importation must
comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
19
|
Ammunition
of the following kinds for a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12
applies:
(a) ammunition that has, as part of the
components (either assembled or separate), a projectile known as any of the
following kinds:
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the returned goods test.
|
|
|
(i) tracer;
(ii) frangible;
(iii) explosive;
(iv) incendiary;
(vi) armour piercing;
(vii) penetrator;
(viii) saboted light armour piercing (SLAP);
(ix) flechette (being a combined collection of
arrows or spears);
|
|
|
|
(b) handgun ammunition that is designed,
advertised or capable of defeating:
(i) soft body armour; or
(ii) opaque or glazed bullet resistant material.
|
|
|
20
|
Ammunition for any firearm to which item 1, 2,
3, 6, 9, 12 or 14A applies, other than ammunition to which item 19 applies.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the Police
authorisation test.
|
|
21
|
A component of
ammunition for a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies, if
the component is one of the following kinds of projectile:
(a) tracer;
(b) frangible;
(c) explosive:
(d) incendiary;
(e) armour
piercing;
(f) penetrator;
(g) saboted light
armour piercing (SLAP);
(h) flechette
(a combined collection of arrows or spears).
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the
returned goods test.
|
|
22
|
A
component of ammunition for a firearm to which item 9 applies, if the
component is designed, advertised or capable of defeating:
(a) soft
body armour; or
(b) opaque
or glazed bullet resistant material.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the official purposes test;
(b) the specified purposes test;
(c) the returned goods test.
|
|
23
|
A component of ammunition for a firearm to
which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies, other than a component to which items
21 and 22 apply.
|
The
importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:
(a) the
official purposes test;
(b) the
specified purposes test;
(c) the Police authorisation
test.
|
Part 3 Conditions relating to the importation of firearms, firearm
accessories, firearm parts, firearm magazines, ammunition, components of
ammunition and replicas
1. Safety
requirements for firearms
1.1 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm if
the importation of the firearm complies with:
(a) the official purposes test; or
(b) the specified purposes test.
1.2 The safety requirements do not apply:
(a) to a firearm that:
(i) was manufactured before 1 January
1900; or
(ii) is designed or adapted for
competition target shooting; or
(b) to a replica; or
(c) to a deactivated firearm.
1.3 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm if
the importer of the firearm produces to a Collector, at the time of
importation, evidence, in the form of:
(a) a restricted goods permit; or
(b) an export permit issued by the Department of
Defence;
that the firearm had previously been exported from Australia by the
importer.
1.4 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm if:
(a) the importer is:
(i) entitled, under a visa issued
under the Migration Act 1958, to enter, or remain in, Australia for a
period of not more than 1 year; or
(ii) entitled, under a New Zealand
passport to enter, or remain in, Australia; and
(b) the importer produces to a Collector, at or
before the time of importation:
(i) documentary evidence to the effect
that the importer is to be a participant in a lawful competition organised by a
shooting organisation, or in a lawful hunting activity; and
(ii) the licence or authorisation, in
accordance with the law of each State or Territory where any competition or
hunting activity referred to in the documentary evidence is to be conducted, to
possess the firearm for the purposes of the competition or hunting activity;
and
(c) if the importer is referred to in
subparagraph (a) (i) — the firearm is to be exported not later than the
expiry of the relevant visa; and
(d) if the importer is referred to in
subparagraph (a) (ii) — the firearm is to be exported not later than 1
year after the date of its importation.
1.5 A firearm, other than:
(a) a firearm to which the safety requirements
do not apply because of subitem 1.1, 1.2, 1.3 or 1.4; or
(b) a firearm mentioned in subitem 1.10;
must comply with the requirements of subitems 1.6 to 1.9
(inclusive), tested in accordance with arrangements approved, in writing by the
Attorney‑General.
1.5A A firearm is taken to comply with the requirements of
either subitems 1.6 to 1.9 (inclusive) or subitem 1.10 if:
(a) it is tested in accordance with procedures
approved by the Minister, and complies with the requirements; or
(b) each of the following applies:
(i) the firearm is included in a
consignment of firearms;
(ii) a sample of the items in the
consignment is selected for testing in accordance with procedures approved by
the Minister;
(iii) the result of the testing of the
sample is that each firearm in the sample complies with the requirements.
1.6 The firearm, fully cocked and with the safety catch
or safety notch (if any) disengaged, must not operate so as to discharge if:
(a) it is held with the barrel vertical and
dropped 3 times, being re‑cocked after each drop, from a height of at
least 35 centimetres and not more than 45 centimetres butt‑first
onto a rubber mat that:
(i) is 25
millimetres thick; and
(ii) has a
hardness reading (in this item called the appropriate hardness reading)
of 75/85 when tested in accordance with Part 15 of Australian Standard 1683‑1976
(“Indentation Hardness of Rubber and Plastics by means of a Durometer”),
published on 1 September 1976; or
(b) it is struck not more than 6 times at
various points along its length by a rubber hammer that:
(i) has a
head that weighs 450 grams, and has the appropriate hardness reading, and is
held at the end of the handle with the head 30 centimetres above the point to
be struck; and
(ii) is
allowed to fall under its own weight once at each of those points, with no
pressure being exerted on the trigger and with the firearm being recocked after
each blow; or
(c) in the case of a firearm having an exposed
hammer or exposed hammers or having a bolt action, each hammer or bolt tail is
struck once by a rubber hammer that:
(i) has a
head that weighs 450 grams and has the appropriate hardness reading; and
(ii) is held
at the end of the handle with the head 30 centimetres above the point to
be struck; and
(iii) is
allowed to fall under its own weight.
1.6A If the firearm has an exposed hammer or cocking
device or exposed hammers or cocking devices, the firearm must not discharge
if, on 3 consecutive occasions:
(a) each hammer or cocking device is moved back
towards the cocked position; and
(b) immediately before the sear engages the bent
or bents in the fully cocked position, and with no pressure being applied to
the trigger, the hammer or cocking device is released and allowed to travel
forward under the pressure of the spring.
1.7 Unless the firearm is fitted with an adjustable
trigger or triggers, the trigger mechanism must not operate when a force of less
than or equal to 11 newtons is exerted on the central point of the trigger in
the direction in which the trigger operates.
1.8 The firearm must be fitted with an effective trigger
guard.
1.9 The firearm must, unless it is a hammer firearm
fitted with a half‑cock mechanism or safety bent, be fitted with a
mechanical or electronic safety device that:
(a) when engaged in
the “safe” position, prevents discharge of the firearm; and
(b) can be disengaged only by:
(i) for an
external safety device — distinct pressure on the device; or
(ii) for an
integral safety device — sustained pressure on the trigger; and
(c) for an applied,
external, safety device — clearly indicates when the firearm is able to
discharge.
1.10 For a firearm mentioned in item 14A of Part 2 of
Schedule 6, the firearm:
(a) must be fitted with an effective trigger
guard; and
(b) must be fitted with a safety device (either
mechanical or electronic) that:
(i) when
engaged in the “safe” position — prevents discharge of the firearm; and
(ii) can be disengaged only by:
(A) for an external safety
device — distinct pressure on the device; or
(B) for an integral safety device — sustained pressure on
the trigger; and
(iii) for an applied, external safety
device, clearly indicates when the firearm is able to discharge.
1.11 The firearm must not:
(a) contain parts; or
(b) be the subject of any modification,
corrosion, damage or alteration;
which would make the firearm unsafe in its use.
2. Specified purposes test
2.1 The importation of an article in accordance with the
specified purposes test is subject to the condition that the importer of the
article must:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed,
export the article within the period, after importation, mentioned in the
Attorney‑General’s permission; and
(b) comply with any condition or requirement
specified, in relation to the article, in the permission.
3. Official purposes test
3.1 The importation, in accordance with the official
purposes test, of an article to be supplied to the government of the
Commonwealth, a State or a Territory under a contract is subject to the
following conditions:
(a) if the government does not acquire ownership
of the article in the period, after importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s
permission, the importer must export the article as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition
or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Attorney‑General’s
permission.
3.2 The importation, in accordance with the official
purposes test, of an article to be shown to the government of the Commonwealth,
a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses is subject to the following
conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or
the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after
importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s permission, the importer
must export the article as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition
or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Attorney‑General’s
permission.
3.3 The importation, in accordance with the official
purposes test, of an article that the government of the Commonwealth, a State
or a Territory proposes to inspect, test or evaluate is subject to the
following conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or
the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after
importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s permission, the importer
must export the article as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition
or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Attorney‑General’s
permission.
3.4 The importation, in accordance with the official
purposes test, of an article that the government of the Commonwealth, a State
or a Territory proposes to use for training is subject to the following
conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or
the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after
importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s permission, the importer
must export the article as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition
or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Attorney‑General’s
permission.
3.5 The importation, in accordance with the official
purposes test, of an article that is to be exhibited at a museum by the
government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory is subject to the
following conditions:
(a) the article must be exported within the
period, after importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s
permission;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition
or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Attorney‑General’s
permission.
3A. International sports shooter test
3A.1 The importation, in accordance with the international
sports shooter test, of a restricted category C article is subject to the
following conditions:
(a) the importer must export the article in the
period, after importation, mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s permission
(unless the article has been destroyed);
(b) the importer must
comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article,
in the Attorney‑General’s permission.
4. Dealer test — category C article
4.1 The importation, in accordance with the dealer test,
of a category C article is subject to the condition that the importer must
comply with:
(a) the conditions mentioned in subitem 4.2; or
(b) if the importation of the article is stated
by the importer to be for demonstration or testing purposes, the conditions
mentioned in subitem 4.3.
4.2 For paragraph 4.1 (a), the conditions are as
follows:
(a) the importer must not sell the article
except to:
(i) a certified buyer for the article;
or
(ii) a certified primary producer; or
(iii) if the article is a restricted
category C article, a certified sports shooter for the article;
(b) the importer must store the article with a
Collector, or a person authorised by a Collector, until:
(i) the article has been sold to a
person mentioned in subparagraph (a) (i) or (ii) or, if the article is a
restricted category C article, to a person mentioned in subparagraph
(a) (iii); and
(ii) the importer declares to a
Collector, in an approved form, that the article has been sold to that person;
and
(iii) the importer produces to a
Collector satisfactory evidence that:
(A) the sale has happened;
and
(B) the buyer is a person
mentioned in subparagraph (a) (i) or (ii) or, if the article is a
restricted category C article, a person mentioned in subparagraph
(a) (iii).
4.3 For paragraph 4.1 (b), the conditions are as
follows:
(a) the importer must not use the article except
for the purpose of demonstrating its uses or for inspection, testing or
evaluation purposes, during the period, after importation, mentioned in the
Attorney‑General’s permission;
(b) the importer must retain ownership and
possession of the article, during the period, after importation, mentioned in
the Attorney‑General’s permission, unless the article is exported or
destroyed;
(c) the importer must, after the period
mentioned in the Attorney‑General’s permission:
(i) retain the article for the purpose
of demonstrating its uses for inspection; or
(ii) export the article; or
(iii) destroy the article; or
(iv) deal with the article in accordance
with paragraph 4.2 (a).
5. Dealer test — category H article
5.1 In this item:
category H (dealer stock) article means a
category H article that has been imported under the dealer test in item 7 of
Part 1, and is held by:
(a) the person by whom it was imported; or
(b) a person who acquired it from the person by
whom it was imported.
licensed firearm dealer means a licensed
firearm dealer for category H articles.
5.2 The importation, in accordance with the dealer test,
of a category H article is subject to the condition that the importer must
comply with subitems 5.3, 5.4, 5.5 and 5.6.
5.3 The importer must
store the article with a Collector, or a person authorised by a Collector,
unless:
(a) the importer:
(i) produces to a Collector a
certificate stating that the importer is certified for stock purposes for a
specified number of category H (dealer stock) articles; and
(ii) gives a written declaration to a
Collector stating that:
(A) the
importer holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the
State or Territory where the importer carries on the business of a firearm
dealer, to possess category H articles for stock purposes; and
(B) the licence or
authorisation has not been suspended, cancelled or otherwise ceased to have
effect; and
(C) the release of the
article to the importer will not result in the importer holding for stock
purposes more than the number of category H (dealer stock) articles that
the importer is certified to hold for those purposes; or
(b) the importer produces to a Collector an
export permit issued by the Department of Defence that permits the article to
be exported from Australia by the importer.
5.4 The importer may only dispose of the article:
(a) to a person (other than a licensed firearm
dealer) who holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of a
State or Territory, to possess the article; or
(b) to a person who holds a written authority or
permission given by a relevant police representative stating that the person is
not required to hold a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of
the relevant State or Territory, to possess the article; or
(c) to a person who is certified for stock
purposes for a specified number of category H (dealer stock) articles; or
(d) by exporting the article.
5.5A For paragraph
5.4 (a), if the importer proposes to dispose of the category H article to
a person who holds a licence for the purpose of taking part in sports shooting,
the article must comply with subitem 1.3 of Part 4 of this Schedule.
5.5 If the importer disposes of the article in a way
authorised by subitem 5.4, the importer must give to a Collector, at the time
the importer next seeks a release of category H (dealer stock) articles to be
held by the importer for stock purposes:
(a) a written declaration by the importer:
(i) stating that the importer has
disposed of the article in a way authorised by subitem 5.4; and
(ii) giving details of the disposal;
and
(b) if the disposal was to a person mentioned in
paragraph 5.4 (c) — a written declaration by the person stating that:
(i) the person holds a licence or
authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the
person carries on the business of a firearm dealer, to possess category H
articles for stock purposes; and
(ii) the licence or authorisation has
not been suspended, cancelled or otherwise ceased to have effect; and
(iii) the acquisition by the person
will not result in the person holding for stock purposes more than the number
of category H (dealer stock) articles that the person is certified to hold for
those purposes.
5.6 If the importer disposes of a category H (dealer
stock) article held by the importer for stock purposes to a person mentioned in
paragraph 5.4 (c), the importer must give to the CEO, or an authorised
officer, within 7 days after the disposal, a copy of the declarations mentioned
in paragraphs 5.5 (a) and (b) that relate to the disposal, unless the
importer has already given the declarations to the Collector under subitem 5.5.
5.7 For this item, a person is certified for stock
purposes, for a specified number of category H (dealer stock) articles,
if:
(a) the person is a licensed firearm dealer; and
(b) the person
holds a certificate that:
(i) was issued by the CEO or an
authorised officer; and
(ii) states that the person is
certified, for a specified period, to hold that number of category H (dealer
stock) articles for stock purposes; and
(c) the certificate has not:
(i) been cancelled at the request of
the person; or
(ii) been
revoked by the CEO, or an authorised officer, under subitem 5.12; or
(iii) otherwise ceased to have effect.
5.8 For subitem 5.7, a person who is a licensed firearm
dealer may apply to the CEO, or an authorised officer, for a certificate
stating that the person is certified, for a specified period, to hold a
specified number of category H (dealer stock) articles for stock purposes.
5.9 An application by a
person for a certificate under subitem 5.8 must:
(a) be accompanied by a copy of the person’s
licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory
where the person carries on the business of a firearm dealer, to possess
category H articles for stock purposes; and
(b) in the case of
a person who has applied to be certified to hold more than 10 category H
(dealer stock) articles for stock purposes — include the following:
(i) details of any previous relevant
disposals, within the meaning given by subitem 5.13, made by the person;
(ii) satisfactory evidence about the
number of category H (dealer stock) articles likely to be required by the
person, in the period of 6 months after the issue of the certificate, for
disposal purposes or other commercial purposes (for example, demonstration or
testing purposes or use in the film and television industry);
(iii) a
statement to the effect that each place where the person intends to store the
category H (dealer stock) articles to be held for stock purposes meets the
requirements of the law of the State or Territory where the place is;
(iv) a
statement to the effect that the person has met the firearms record‑keeping
requirements, under the law of the State or Territory where the person carries
on business as a firearm dealer, in relation to the person’s business (having
regard, in particular, to the accuracy and timeliness of the person’s records);
(v) details of any firearms‑related
offence committed by the person within the period of 10 years immediately
before the date of the application in respect of which a conviction was
recorded;
(vi) a statement to the effect that the
person consents to criminal records being checked for the purpose of deciding
whether to issue the certificate to the person.
5.10 If:
(a) the CEO, or an authorised officer, receives
an application from a person for a certificate under subitem 5.8; and
(b) the CEO, or
authorised officer, is satisfied, having regard to the application and any
other relevant information, that it is appropriate for the person to hold a
number (which may or may not be the number specified in the application) of
category H (dealer stock) articles for stock purposes;
the CEO, or authorised officer, may
issue a certificate to the person stating that the person is certified, for a
specified period, to hold that number of category H (dealer stock) articles for
stock purposes.
5.11 A person who is certified for stock purposes for a
specified number of category H (dealer stock) articles must, as soon as
practicable after any change in the person’s circumstances in relation to the
person’s business as a firearm dealer, inform the CEO, or an authorised
officer, in writing, of the change.
Examples of circumstances
1 The person ceases to be a licensed
firearm dealer.
2 The place where the person is storing
category H (dealer stock) articles no longer meets the requirements of the law
of the State or Territory where the place is.
3 The person does not need to hold the
number of category H (dealer stock) articles that the person is certified to
hold.
4 The person has been convicted of a
firearms‑related offence.
5.12 The CEO, or an authorised officer, may revoke a
certificate issued to a person under subitem 5.10 if:
(a) the person ceases to be a licensed firearm
dealer; or
(b) a place where the person stores category H
(dealer stock) articles held for stock purposes does not meet the requirements
of the law of the State or Territory where the place is; or
(c) in the case of a person who is certified to
hold more than 10 category H (dealer stock) articles for stock purposes —
the number of category H (dealer stock) articles that the person is certified
to hold for stock purposes is not appropriate, having regard to:
(i) the average monthly number of
category H (dealer stock) articles disposed of by the person under the
certificate in the period of 6 months immediately before the date of
revocation; and
(ii) evidence supplied by the person in
relation to the number of category H (dealer stock) articles likely to be
required by the person, in the period of 6 months after the date of revocation,
for disposal purposes or for other commercial purposes (for example,
demonstration or testing purposes or use in the film and television industry);
or
(d) the person has made a false or misleading
statement in:
(i) an application for a certificate
made under subitem 5.8; or
(ii) a declaration made for the
purposes of subparagraph 5.3 (a) (ii) or subitem 5.5; or
(e) the person is holding more category H
(dealer stock) articles for stock purposes than the person is certified to hold
for those purposes; or
(f) the person has been convicted of a firearms‑related
offence committed within the period of 10 years immediately before the date of
revocation; or
(g) the person has failed to inform the CEO, or
an authorised officer, of any change in the person’s circumstances in relation
to the person’s business as a firearm dealer; or
(h) the CEO is satisfied, having regard to any
other relevant matter, that it is not appropriate for the person to hold any
category H (dealer stock) articles for stock purposes.
Example of a relevant matter for paragraph (h)
The person has been convicted of an offence involving
misrepresentation, or other fraudulent conduct, against a law of the
Commonwealth, a State or a Territory, being an offence committed within the
period of 10 years immediately before the date of revocation.
5.13 For subparagraph
5.9 (b) (i), previous relevant disposals, for a person
who has applied under subitem 5.8 to be certified to hold more than
10 category H (dealer stock) articles for stock purposes, means:
(a) if the person has not previously applied for
a certificate under subitem 5.8 and the application is made before 30 June
2001 — the average monthly number of firearms of the kind mentioned in
item 9 of Part 2 of this Schedule, as in force immediately before 18
August 2000, that were disposed of by the person in the period from
18 February 2000 to 17 August 2000 (inclusive); and
(b) if the person has not previously applied for
a certificate under subitem 5.8 and the application is made on or after
1 July 2001 — the average monthly number of category H articles that
were disposed of by the person in the period of 6 months immediately
before the date of the application; and
(c) if the person holds a certificate issued under
subitem 5.10 and the certificate has not ceased to have effect — the
average monthly number of category H (dealer stock) articles disposed of
by the person under the certificate in the period of 6 months immediately
before the date of the application; and
(d) if the person does not hold, but has, within
the period of 6 months immediately before the date of the application,
held, a certificate issued under subitem 5.10 — the average monthly number
of category H articles (including any category H (dealer stock) articles)
disposed of by the person in the period of 6 months immediately before the
date of the application.
5.14 Nothing in this item affects the operation of Part
VIIC of the Crimes Act 1914 (which includes provisions that, in certain
circumstances, relieve persons from the requirement to disclose spent
convictions and require persons who are aware of such convictions to disregard
them).
5.15 Despite any provision of a law of a State or
Territory, a person may disclose information to the CEO, or an authorised
officer, for the purpose of enabling the CEO, or authorised officer, to carry
out his or her functions under this item
Part 4 Interpretation
1. Meaning of certified sports shooter
1.1 For this Schedule, a
person is a certified sports shooter, for a restricted category C
article, if the Attorney‑General certifies, in writing, that the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the person is a registered shooter with the
Australian Clay Target Association; and
(ab) the person is:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under
the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; and
(b) the person is the holder of a licence or
authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the
club is situated, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in clay
target events; and
(c) the person intends to use the article solely
to take part in clay target events; and
(d) the person:
(i) requires the article to take part
in clay target events because of a physical need due to lack of strength or
dexterity; or
(ii) on 15 November 1996, was a
registered shooter with the Australian Clay Target Association and possessed a
self‑loading shotgun, or pump action repeating shotgun, for use in clay
target events.
1.2 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
sports shooter, for a category H article, a firearm magazine for a
category H article, or a firearm barrel for a category H article, if:
(a) either:
(i) the article complies with subitem
1.3 or 1.5; or
(ii) the firearm magazine complies with
the specifications for shot capacity in subitem 1.3; or
(iii) the firearm barrel complies with
the specifications for barrel length and calibre in subitem 1.3; and
(b) a relevant police representative is satisfied
that the person meets the requirements, under the law of the relevant State or
Territory, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in sports or
target shooting permitted under that law; and
(c) the relevant police representative certifies,
in an approved form, that the person is a certified sports shooter for the
article.
1.3 For paragraph 1.2 (a), a category H article
complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article:
(i) is designed or adapted for
competition target shooting; or
(ii) has a barrel length of at least:
(A) for a semi‑automatic
handgun — 120 mm; and
(B) for a revolver or a
single shot handgun — 100 mm; and
(b) the article is fitted with a firearm
magazine, or cylinder, of a capacity of not more than 10 rounds; and
(c) either:
(i) if a police representative
certifies that the article is required for the purposes of participating in
sporting events specially accredited by the State or Territory, the article has
a calibre not greater than .45”; or
(ii) in any other case, the article has
a calibre not greater than .38”.
1.4 For paragraph
1.2 (a), a category H article that is:
(a) a black powder muzzle loading pistol; or
(b) a cap and ball percussion fired revolver;
is taken to comply with subitem 1.3.
1.5 For paragraph 1.2 (a), a category H article, a
firearm magazine for a category H article or a firearm barrel for a category H
article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article, magazine or barrel is to be
imported by a person who is:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under
the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; and
(b) the person satisfies a Collector, at or
before importation, that the person had lawfully exported the article, magazine
or barrel from Australia with the intention of participating in an
international sports or target shooting event which was intended to be held
outside Australia on or before 30 June 2003.
1.6 For subitem 1.3:
calibre means the size of the cartridge that
a handgun is chambered to discharge.
1A. Meaning of certified international sports
shooter
1A.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
international sports shooter, for a restricted category C article, if
the Attorney‑General certifies, in writing, that the Attorney‑General
is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to use the article in
Australia solely to take part in a clay target event; and
(b) the event is:
(i) the Olympic Games or an associated
event; or
(ii) the Paralympic Games or an
associated event; or
(iii) the Commonwealth Games or an
associated event; or
(iv) organised by the Australian Clay
Target Association; and
(c) the person is not:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under
the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; and
(d) the person is the holder of a licence or
authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the
event is to be held, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in
clay target events.
1A.2 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
international sports shooter, for a category H article, a
firearm magazine for a category H article, or a firearm barrel for a category H
article, if:
(a) either:
(i) the article complies with subitem
1A.3 or 1A.5; or
(ii) the firearm magazine complies with
the specifications for shot capacity in subitem 1A.3; or
(iii) the firearm barrel complies with
the specifications for barrel length and calibre in subitem 1A3; and
(b) a relevant police
representative is satisfied that the person intends to use the article in
Australia for sports or target shooting; and
(c) the relevant
police representative is satisfied that the person is not:
(i) an
Australian citizen; or
(ii) the
holder of a permanent visa under the Migration Act 1958; and
(d) the relevant police
representative is satisfied that the person is the holder of a licence or
authorisation to possess the article for sports or target shooting, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory
where the person intends to use the article; and
(e) the relevant
police representative certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a
certified international sports shooter for the article.
1A.3 For
paragraph 1A.2 (a), a category H article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article:
(i) is
designed or adapted for competition target shooting; or
(ii) has a
barrel length of at least:
(A) for
a semi‑automatic handgun — 120 mm; and
(B) for
a revolver or a single shot handgun — 100 mm; and
(b) the article is fitted with a firearm
magazine, or cylinder, of a capacity of not more than 10 rounds; and
(c) either:
(i) if a
police representative certifies that the article is required for the purposes
of participating in sporting events specially accredited by the State or
Territory, the article has a calibre not greater than .45”; or
(ii) in any
other case, the article has a calibre not greater than .38”.
1A.4 For paragraph 1A.2 (a), a category H article that
is:
(a) a black powder muzzle loading pistol; or
(b) a cap and ball percussion fired revolver;
is taken to comply with subitem 1A.3.
1A.5 For paragraph 1A.2 (a), a category H article, a
firearm magazine for a category H article or a firearm barrel for a category H
article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the person is importing the article,
magazine or barrel for the purpose of participating in a sports or target
shooting event which is intended to be held in Australia on or before 30 June
2003; and
(b) the person satisfies a Collector, at or
before importation, that the person:
(i) is a participant in the event; and
(ii) will not use the article, magazine
or barrel for a purpose other than participating in the event; and
(iii) will export the article, magazine
or barrel from Australia as soon as practicable after the person has
participated in the event.
1A.6 For subitem 1A.3:
calibre means the size of the cartridge that
a handgun is chambered to discharge.
1B. Meaning of
relevant police representative
For this Schedule:
relevant police
representative, for a State or Territory, means:
(a) the chief police officer for that State or
Territory, namely:
(i) for a State — the
Commissioner or Chief Commissioner of the police force of the State; and
(ii) for the Northern Territory —
the Commissioner of Police of the police force of the Northern Territory; and
(iii) for a Territory other than the
Northern Territory — the chief police officer of the Australian Capital
Territory; or
(b) a person authorised in writing to act on
behalf of that chief police officer in relation to matters to which this
Schedule relates.
2. Meaning of certified primary producer
2.1 For this Schedule, a
person is a certified primary producer if a relevant police
representative certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a primary
producer.
3. Meaning
of category C article and restricted category C article
3.1 For this Schedule, a category C article
is:
(a) a firearm
mentioned in item 3 of Part 2 (category C firearm); or
(b) a firearm part
mentioned in item 4 of Part 2 of, or for, a category C firearm.
3.2 For this Schedule, a restricted category C
article is:
(a) a self‑loading
shotgun, or pump action repeating shotgun, mentioned in item 3 of Part 2 (restricted
category C firearm); or
(b) a firearm part
mentioned in item 4 of Part 2 of, or for, a restricted category C firearm.
3A. Meaning of category H article
3A.1 For this Schedule, a category H article
is:
(a) a firearm mentioned in item 9 of Part 2
(other than a firearm that was manufactured before 1 January 1900); or
(b) a frame or receiver mentioned in item 9B of
Part 2 (other than a frame or receiver that was manufactured before
1 January 1900).
4. Meaning of certified buyer
4.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
buyer, for a category C article, if the Attorney‑General
certifies, in writing, that the Attorney‑General is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a
licensed firearm dealer; and
(b) the article is for the purposes of the
government of the Commonwealth, or a State or Territory; and
(c) the government will retain ownership of the
article after buying it.
4.2 For this Schedule, a person is also a certified
buyer, for a category C article, if the Attorney‑General
certifies, in writing, that the Attorney‑General is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a
licensed firearm dealer; and
(b) the person’s principal or only occupation is
the business of controlling vertebrate pest animals on rural land; and
(c) the person holds a licence or authorisation,
in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the person will
carry out the occupation, to possess the article for the purpose of the
person’s occupation.
4.3 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
buyer, for a category H article, if:
(a) the Secretary of the Attorney‑General’s
Department:
(i) is satisfied of the matters
mentioned in subitem 4.4 in relation to the person and the article; and
(ii) certifies that the person is a
certified buyer for the category H article; or
(b) a relevant police representative:
(i) is satisfied of the matters
mentioned in subitem 4.5 in relation to the person and the article; and
(ii) certifies, in an approved form,
that the person is a certified buyer for the category H article.
4.4 For subparagraph 4.3 (a) (i), the matters
are as follows:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a
licensed firearm dealer;
(b) the article is for the purposes of the
government of the Commonwealth;
(c) the government will retain ownership of the
article after buying it.
4.5 For subparagraph
4.3 (b) (i), the matters are as follows:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a
licensed firearm dealer;
(b) the article is for the purposes of the
government of the relevant State or Territory;
(c) the government will retain ownership of the
article after buying it.
5. Meaning of licensed firearm dealer
5.1 For this Schedule, a person is a licensed
firearm dealer, for a category C article or category H article, if the
person:
(a) carries on the business of a firearm dealer;
and
(b) holds a licence or authorisation, in
accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the person carries on
the business, to possess the article and sell or dispose of it, or deal with it
for other commercial purposes, in the course of the business.
6. Meaning of certified for business or
occupational purposes
6.1 For this Schedule, a
person is certified for business or occupational purposes, for a
category H article, if a relevant police representative:
(a) is satisfied that the person meets the
requirements, under the law of the relevant State or Territory, to possess the
article for business or occupational purposes (other than for the purposes of
being a firearm collector or firearm dealer); and
(b) certifies, in an approved form, that the
person is a person certified for business or occupational purposes for the
category H article.
7. Meaning of certified collector
7.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified
collector, for a category H article, if a relevant police
representative:
(a) is satisfied that the person is a licensed
collector, in accordance with the law of the relevant State or Territory; and
(b) certifies, in an approved form, that the
person is a certified collector for the category H article.
8. Meaning of defence‑sanctioned
activity
8.1 In this Schedule, a defence‑sanctioned
activity means an activity approved by:
(a) a Service Chief of the Australian Defence
Force; or
(b) a Deputy Secretary of the Department of
Defence.
Schedule
7 Articles of glazed ceramic ware,
methods of testing and permissible levels of metal release
(regulation 4E)
|
Column 1
|
Column 2
|
Column 3
|
Column 4
|
Column 5
|
|
|
Item
|
Description of Article
|
Method of testing
|
Amount of lead per volume of solution
|
Amount of cadmium per volume of solution
|
|
|
|
|
milligrams per litre
|
milligrams per litre
|
|
1
|
Cup, mug, jug, jar, bowl, teapot,
coffee pot or other article of tableware (other than an article referred to
in Item 3) having a liquid capacity of less than 1100 millilitres.
|
Method specified and described
in paragraph 4 (other than
subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on
31 October 1972.
|
7.0
|
0.7
|
|
2
|
Cup, mug, jug, jar, bowl, teapot,
coffee pot or other article of tableware (other than an article referred to
in Item 3) having a liquid capacity equal to or in excess of
1100 millilitres.
|
Method specified and described
in paragraph 4 (other than
subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on
31 October 1972.
|
2.0
|
0.2
|
|
3
|
Plate (including soup
plate or dessert plate), saucer, or similar article of tableware.
|
Method specified and
described
in paragraph 4 (other than
subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on
31 October 1972.
|
20.0
|
2.0
|
|
4
|
Any
article of cooking ware.
|
Method
specified and described
in paragraph 4 (other than
subparagraph 4.1) of Part 2 of British Standard 4860 published on
31 October 1972.
|
7.0
|
0.7
|
Schedule
7A Substances the importation of which is
prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 5G
(regulation 5G)
|
Item
|
Substance
|
|
1
|
Erythropoietin
|
|
2
|
Natural and manufactured gonadotrophins, including
menotrophins, Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Luteinising Hormone and Human
Chorionic Gonadotrophin
|
|
3
|
Natural and manufactured growth hormones, including
somatropin, somatrem, somatomedins and insulin‑like growth factors (not
insulins) and growth hormone releasing hormones (somatorelin and synthetic
analogues)
|
|
4
|
Darbepoetin alfa
|
Schedule
8 Goods the importation of which is
prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 5H
(regulation 5H (2))
|
Item
|
Description of Goods
|
|
1
|
Abortifacients, that is, substances
that purport to produce abortion.
|
|
2
|
Advertising matter (including booklets,
pamphlets, leaflets and circulars) relating to preparations, instruments,
appliances, and other goods, that purport to be for therapeutic purposes and
containing any statements or claims that are misleading, false or
extravagant.
|
|
3
|
Aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2,
3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl 3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one),
derivatives of aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one)
(including dipyrone) and preparations containing aminophenazone (aminopyrine)
(4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one)
or derivatives of aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2,
3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one)
(including dipyrone).
|
|
3C
|
Anabolic or androgenic substances.
|
|
4
|
Aphrodisiacs, that is to say,
cantharides, cantharidin and yohimbine, preparations containing cantharides,
cantharidin or yohimbine, and any other substance or preparation that is, or
is likely to be, productive, or is capable of being converted into a
substance that is, or is likely to be, productive, of effects substantially
of the same character or nature as, or analogous to, those produced by
cantharides, cantharidin or yohimbine.
|
|
5
|
Bithionol (2, 2‑thiobis (4, 6‑dichlorophenol))
and preparations containing bithionol (2, 2‑thiobis (4, 6‑dichlorophenol)).
|
|
6
|
5‑bromo‑4‑chlorosalicylanilide
and preparations containing 5‑bromo‑4‑chlorosalicylanilide.
|
|
7
|
Buniodyl sodium (bunamiodyl) (3‑butyramido‑a‑ethyl‑2,
4, 6‑triiodocinnamic acid sodium salt) and preparations containing
buniodyl sodium (bunamiodyl) (3‑butyramido‑a‑ethyl‑2,
4, 6‑triiodocinnamic acid sodium salt).
|
|
8
|
Cinchophen methyl ester (methyl‑2‑phenylcinchoninate)
and preparations containing cinchophen methyl ester (methyl‑2‑phenylcinchoninate).
|
|
9
|
Fenticlor (2, 2‑thiobis (4‑chlorophenol))
and preparations containing fenticlor (2, 2‑thiobis (4‑chlorophenol)).
|
|
10
|
Food, drink and oral medicine for human
consumption and preparations (including essences and extracts) used in the
manufacture of food, drink or oral medicine for human consumption that
contain—
|
|
|
(a) glycol or a derivative of a
glycol other than propylene glycol; or
|
|
|
(b) calamus or oil of calamus.
|
|
11
|
Ketamine
|
|
12
|
(2‑Isopropyl‑4‑pentenoyl)
urea and preparations containing (2‑isopropyl‑4‑pentenoyl)
urea.
|
|
12A
|
Oil of wormwood, being an essential oil
obtained from plants of the genus Artemisia, and preparations
containing oil of wormwood.
|
|
12AA
|
Laetrile and preparations containing
laetrile.
|
|
13
|
Preparations that purport to be a
remedy for drunkenness, alcoholic habit or drug habit.
|
|
14
|
3, 3, 4, 5‑Tetrachlorosalicylanilide
and preparations containing 3, 3, 4, 5‑tetrachlorosalicylanilide.
|
|
15
|
Thalidomide and preparations containing
thalidomide.
|
|
16
|
Triparanol and preparations containing
triparanol.
|
|
17
|
Xylitol
and preparations containing xylitol.
|
Schedule
9 Goods, being certain organochlorine
chemicals, the importation of which is prohibited unless permission is granted
under regulation 5I
(regulation 5I)
|
Item
|
Common name
|
CAS Registry Number
|
|
1
|
aldrin (HHDN)
|
309‑00‑2
|
|
2
|
HCH (mixed isomers) (BHC)
|
608‑73‑1
|
|
3
|
lindane (g‑BHC,
g‑HCH)
|
58‑89‑9
|
|
4
|
chlordane
|
57‑74‑9
|
|
5
|
DDT (pp’‑DDT)
|
50‑29‑3
|
|
6
|
dieldrin (HEOD)
|
60‑57‑1
|
|
7
|
endrin
|
72‑20‑8
|
|
8
|
heptachlor
|
76‑44‑8
|
|
9
|
hexachlorobenzene (HCB)
|
118‑74‑1
|
|
10
|
methoxychlor
|
72‑43‑5
|
|
11
|
oxychlordane
|
26880‑48‑8
27304‑13‑8
|
|
12
|
mirex
|
2385‑85‑5
|
|
13
|
toxaphene (camphechlor)
|
8000‑35‑2
|
Schedule
10 Ozone‑depleting substances
(regulation 5K)
Part 1 Chlorofluorocarbons
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
|
1
|
Trichlorofluoromethane
(CFC‑11)
|
|
2
|
Dichlorodifluoromethane
(CFC‑12)
|
|
3
|
Trichlorotrifluoroethane
(CFC‑113)
|
|
4
|
Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
(CFC‑114)
|
|
5
|
(Mono)
chloropentafluoroethane (CFC‑115)
|
|
6
|
CF3Cl
(CFC‑13)
|
|
7
|
C2FCl5
(CFC‑111)
|
|
8
|
C2F2Cl4
(CFC‑112)
|
|
9
|
C3FCl7
(CFC‑211)
|
|
10
|
C3F2Cl6
(CFC‑212)
|
|
11
|
C3F3Cl5
(CFC‑213)
|
|
12
|
C3F4Cl4
(CFC‑214)
|
|
13
|
C3F5Cl3
(CFC‑215)
|
|
14
|
C3F6Cl2
(CFC‑216)
|
|
15
|
C3F7Cl
(CFC‑217)
|
|
|
|
|
|
Part 2 Halons
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
|
1
|
Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon‑1211)
|
|
2
|
Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon‑1301)
|
|
3
|
Dibromotetrafluoroethane (Halon‑2402)
|
|
|
|
|
|
Part 3 Carbon tetrachloride
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
|
|
|
|
|
Part 4 Methyl chloroform
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
1,1,1‑trichloroethane (C2H3Cl3)
|
|
|
|
|
Note This formula does not refer to
1,1,2‑trichloroethane.
Part 5 Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CHFCl2 (HCFC‑21)
|
|
2
|
CHF2Cl (HCFC‑22)
|
|
3
|
CH2FCl (HCFC‑31)
|
|
4
|
C2HFCl4 (HCFC‑121)
|
|
5
|
C2HF2Cl3 (HCFC‑122)
|
|
6
|
C2HF3Cl2 (HCFC‑123)
|
|
7
|
CHCl2CF3 (HCFC‑123)
|
|
8
|
C2HF4Cl (HCFC‑124)
|
|
9
|
CHFClCF3 (HCFC‑124)
|
|
10
|
C2H2FCl3 (HCFC‑131)
|
|
11
|
C2H2F2Cl2 (HCFC‑132)
|
|
12
|
C2H2F3Cl (HCFC‑133)
|
|
13
|
C2H3FCl2 (HCFC‑141)
|
|
14
|
CH3CFCl2 (HCFC‑141b)
|
|
15
|
C2H3F2Cl (HCFC‑142)
|
|
16
|
CH3CF2Cl (HCFC‑142b)
|
|
17
|
C2H4FCl (HCFC‑151)
|
|
18
|
C3HFCl6 (HCFC‑221)
|
|
19
|
C3HF2Cl5 (HCFC‑222)
|
|
20
|
C3HF3Cl4 (HCFC‑223)
|
|
21
|
C3HF4Cl3 (HCFC‑224)
|
|
22
|
C3HF5Cl2 (HCFC‑225)
|
|
23
|
CF3CF2CHCl2 (HCFC‑225ca)
|
|
24
|
CF2ClCF2CHClF (HCFC‑225cb)
|
|
25
|
C3HF6Cl (HCFC‑226)
|
|
26
|
C3H2FCl5 (HCFC‑231)
|
|
27
|
C3H2F2Cl4
(HCFC‑232)
|
|
28
|
C3H2F3Cl3
(HCFC‑233)
|
|
29
|
C3H2F4Cl2
(HCFC‑234)
|
|
30
|
C3H2F5Cl (HCFC‑235)
|
|
31
|
C3H3FCl4 (HCFC‑241)
|
|
32
|
C3H3F2Cl3
(HCFC‑242)
|
|
33
|
C3H3F3Cl2 (HCFC‑243)
|
|
34
|
C3H3F4Cl (HCFC‑244)
|
|
35
|
C3H4FCl3 (HCFC‑251)
|
|
36
|
C3H4F2Cl2
(HCFC‑252)
|
|
37
|
C3H4F3Cl (HCFC‑253)
|
|
38
|
C3H5FCl2 (HCFC‑261)
|
|
39
|
C3H5F2Cl (HCFC‑262)
|
|
40
|
C3H6FCl (HCFC‑271)
|
|
|
|
|
Part 6 Hydrobromofluorocarbons
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CHFBr2
|
|
2
|
CHF2Br (HBFC‑22B1)
|
|
3
|
CH2FBr
|
|
4
|
C2HFBr4
|
|
5
|
C2HF2Br3
|
|
6
|
C2HF3Br2
|
|
7
|
C2HF4Br
|
|
8
|
C2H2FBr3
|
|
9
|
C2H2F2Br2
|
|
10
|
C2H2F3Br
|
|
11
|
C2H3FBr2
|
|
12
|
C2H3F2Br
|
|
13
|
C2H4FBr
|
|
14
|
C3HFBr6
|
|
15
|
C3HF2Br5
|
|
16
|
C3HF3Br4
|
|
17
|
C3HF4Br3
|
|
18
|
C3HF5Br2
|
|
19
|
C3HF6Br
|
|
20
|
C3H2FBr5
|
|
21
|
C3H2F2Br4
|
|
22
|
C3H2F3Br3
|
|
23
|
C3H2F4Br2
|
|
24
|
C3H2F5Br
|
|
25
|
C3H3FBr4
|
|
26
|
C3H3F2Br3
|
|
27
|
C3H3F3Br2
|
|
28
|
C3H3F4Br2
|
|
29
|
C3H4FBr3
|
|
30
|
C3H4F2Br2
|
|
31
|
C3H4F3Br
|
|
32
|
C3H5FBr2
|
|
33
|
C3H5F2Br
|
|
34
|
C3H6FBr
|
|
|
|
|
Part 7 Methyl bromide
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CH3Br
|
|
|
|
|
Part 8 Bromochloromethane
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CH2BrCl
|
Part 9 HFCs
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CHF3 (HFC‑23)
|
|
2
|
CH2F2 (HFC‑32)
|
|
3
|
CH3F (HFC‑41)
|
|
4
|
CHF2CF3
(HFC‑125)
|
|
5
|
CHF2CHF2
(HFC‑134)
|
|
6
|
CH2FCF3
(HFC‑134a)
|
|
7
|
CHF2CH2F
(HFC‑143)
|
|
8
|
CF3CH3
(HFC‑143a)
|
|
9
|
CH2FCH2F
(HFC‑152)
|
|
10
|
CH3CHF2
(HFC‑152a)
|
|
11
|
CH3CH2F
(HFC‑161)
|
|
12
|
CF3CHFCF3 (HFC‑227ea)
|
|
13
|
CH2FCF2CF3 (HFC‑236cb)
|
|
14
|
CHF2CHFCF3 (HFC‑236ea)
|
|
15
|
CF3CH2CF3 (HFC‑236fa)
|
|
16
|
CH2FCF2CHF2 (HFC‑245ca)
|
|
17
|
CHF2CH2CF3 (HFC‑245fa)
|
|
18
|
CF3CH2CF2CH3 (HFC‑365mfc)
|
|
19
|
CF3CHFCHFCF2CF3 (HFC‑43‑10mee)
|
Part 10 PFCs
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Substance
|
|
1
|
CF4
|
|
2
|
C2F6
|
|
3
|
C3F8
|
|
4
|
C4F10
|
|
5
|
c‑C4F8
|
|
6
|
C5F12
|
|
7
|
C6F14
|
Schedule
11 Chemical compounds
(regulation 5J)
Part 1 Interpretation
1. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, a reference to a group of
dialkylated chemicals, followed in parentheses by a list of alkyl groups,
includes all possible combinations of the alkyl groups.
2. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, references to O‑alkyl (<
C10, including cycloalkyl) compounds include compounds in which
the alkyl group is a saturated ring system (cycloalkyl group) or contains one
or more saturated ring systems (cycloalkyl groups).
3. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, references to the terms
‘alkyl’, ‘cycloalkyl’, ‘alkylated’, ‘Me’ (methyl), ‘Et’ (ethyl), ‘n‑Pr’
(n‑propyl) and ‘i‑Pr’ (iso‑propyl) (other than references to
which item 2 of Part 2 applies):
(a) are to be read literally; and
(b) do not include any substituted alkyl,
cycloalkyl, alkylated, methyl, ethyl, n‑propyl or iso‑propyl
groups.
Part 2 Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 1)
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Chemical compound or group of compounds
|
Column 3
CAS number
|
|
1
|
O‑alkyl (<
C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑phosphonofluoridates,
including:
|
|
|
|
(a) Sarin:
O‑isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate; and
|
107‑44‑8
|
|
|
(b) Soman:
O‑pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate
|
96‑64‑0
|
|
2
|
O‑alkyl
(< C10, including cycloalkyl) N, N‑dialkyl
(Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑phosphoramidocyanidates, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) Tabun:
O‑ethyl N, N‑dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate
|
77‑81‑6
|
|
3
|
O‑alkyl (H or <
C10, including cycloalkyl) S‑2‑dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr
or i‑ Pr)‑aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts,
including:
|
|
|
|
(a) VX:
O‑ethyl S‑2‑diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonothiolate
|
50782‑69‑9
|
|
4
|
The following sulphur
mustards:
|
|
|
|
(a) 2‑chloroethylchloro‑methylsulphide
|
2625‑76‑5
|
|
|
(b) Mustard
Gas (H): bis (2‑chloroethyl) sulphide
|
505‑60‑2
|
|
|
(c) bis
(2‑chloroethylthio) methane
|
63869‑13‑6
|
|
|
(d) Sesquimustard:
1,2‑bis (2‑chloroethylthio) ethane
|
3563‑36‑8
|
|
|
(e) 1,3‑bis
(2‑ chloroethylthio)‑n‑propane
|
63905‑10‑2
|
|
|
(f) 1,4‑bis
(2‑chloroethylthio)‑n‑butane
|
142868‑93‑7
|
|
|
(g) 1,5‑bis
(2‑chloroethylthio)‑n‑pentane
|
142868‑94‑8
|
|
|
(h) bis
(2‑chloroethylthiomethyl) ether
|
63918‑90‑1
|
|
|
(i) O‑Mustard (T): bis (2‑chloroethylthioethyl) ether
|
63918‑89‑8
|
|
5
|
The
following Lewisites:
|
|
|
|
(a) Lewisite
1: 2‑chlorovinyldichloroarsine
|
541‑25‑3
|
|
|
(b) Lewisite
2: bis (2‑chlorovinyl) chloroarsine
|
40334‑69‑8
|
|
|
(c) Lewisite
3: tris (2‑chlorovinyl) arsine
|
40334‑70‑1
|
|
6
|
The following nitrogen mustards:
|
|
|
|
(a) HN1: bis (2‑chloroethyl)
ethylamine
|
538‑07‑8
|
|
|
(b) HN2:
bis (2‑chloroethyl) methylamine
|
51‑75‑2
|
|
|
(c) HN3:
tris (2‑chloroethyl) amine
|
555‑77‑1
|
|
7
|
Saxitoxin
|
35523‑89‑8
|
|
8
|
Ricin
|
9009‑86‑3
|
|
9
|
Alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr
or i‑Pr) phosphonyl difluorides, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) DF:
methylphosphonyl difluoride; and
|
676‑99‑3
|
|
|
(b) ethyl
phosphonyl difluoride
|
753‑98‑0
|
|
10
|
O‑alkyl (H or <
C10, including cycloalkyl) O‑2‑dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr
or i‑Pr)‑aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
phosphonites and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) QL:
O‑ethyl O‑2‑diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite
|
57856‑11‑8
|
|
11
|
Chlorosarin: O‑isopropyl
methylphosphonochloridate
|
1445‑76‑7
|
|
12
|
Chlorosoman: O‑pinacolyl
methylphosphonochloridate
|
7040‑57‑5
|
Part 3 Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 2)
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Chemical compound or group of compounds
|
Column 3
CAS number
|
|
|
A. Toxic chemicals
|
|
|
1
|
Amiton: O,O‑diethyl S‑[2‑(diethylamino)
ethyl] phosphorothiolate and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts.
|
78–53–5
|
|
2
|
PFIB: 1,1,3,3,3‑pentafluoro‑2‑(trifluoromethyl)‑1‑propene
|
382–21–8
|
|
3
|
BZ: 3‑quinuclidinyl benzilate*
|
6581–06–2
|
|
|
B. Precursors
|
|
|
4
|
Chemicals, except for those mentioned in Part 2,
containing a phosphorus atom to which is bonded one methyl, ethyl or propyl
(normal or iso) group but not further carbon atoms, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) methylphosphonyl
dichloride
|
676–97–1
|
|
|
(b) diethyl
ethylphosphonate (phosphonic acid, ethyl‑, diethyl ester)
|
78–38–6
|
|
|
(c) methylphosphonic
acid (phosphonic acid, methyl)
|
993–13–5
|
|
|
(d) dimethyl
methylphosphonate (phosphonic acid, methyl‑, dimethyl ester)
|
756–79–6
|
|
|
(e) phosphonic
acid, methyl‑, compounded with (aminoiminomethyl) urea (1:1)
|
84402–58–4
|
|
|
but not including Fonofos: O‑ethyl S‑phenyl
ethylphosphonothiolothionate
|
944–22–9
|
|
5
|
N,N‑Dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
phosphoramidic dihalides, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) N,N‑Dimethyl
phosphoramidic dichloride
|
677–43–0
|
|
6
|
Dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr) N,N‑dialkyl
(Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑phosphoramidates, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) Diethyl
N,N‑Dimethylphosphoramidate
|
2404–03–7
|
|
7
|
Arsenic trichloride (arsenous trichloride)
|
7784–34–1
|
|
8
|
2,2‑Diphenyl‑2‑hydroxyacetic acid
(benzilic acid)
|
76–93–7
|
|
9
|
Quinuclidine‑3‑ol
|
1619–34–7
|
|
10
|
N,N‑Dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
aminoethyl‑2‑chlorides and corresponding protonated salts,
including:
|
|
|
|
(a) N,N‑diethylaminoethyl‑2‑chloride,
hydrochloride
|
869–24–9
|
|
|
(b) N,N‑diethylaminoethyl‑2‑chloride
|
100‑35‑6
|
|
|
(c) N,N‑diisopropyl‑2‑aminoethyl‑2‑chloride
hydrochloride
|
4261–68–1
|
|
11
|
N,N‑Dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
aminoethane‑2‑ols and corresponding protonated salts, including:
|
|
|
|
(a) 2‑diisopropylaminoethanol
|
96–80–0
|
|
|
but not including:
|
|
|
|
(b) N,N‑dimethylaminoethanol
and corresponding protonated salts
|
108–01–0
|
|
|
(c) N,N‑diethylaminoethanol
and corresponding protonated salts
|
100–37–8
|
|
12
|
N,N‑Dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)
aminoethane‑2‑thiols and corresponding protonated salts,
including:
|
|
|
|
(a) N,N‑dimethylaminoethane‑2‑thiol
hydrochloride
|
13242–44–9
|
|
|
(b) N,N‑diisopropylaminoethane‑2‑thiol
hydrochloride
|
41480‑75‑5
|
|
13
|
Thiodiglycol
|
111–48–8
|
|
14
|
Pinacolyl alcohol: 3,3‑dimethylbutan‑2‑ol
(2‑butanol, 3,3‑dimethyl‑)
|
464–07–3
|
Part 4 Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 3)
|
Column 1
Item
|
Column 2
Chemical compound or group of compounds
|
Column 3
CAS number
|
|
1
|
Phosgene (carbonyl dichloride)
|
75–44–5
|
|
2
|
Cyanogen chloride
|
506–77–4
|
|
3
|
Hydrogen cyanide (hydrocyanic acid)
|
74–90–8
|
|
4
|
Chloropicrin (trichloronitromethane)
|
76–06–02
|
|
5
|
Phosphorus oxychloride (phosphoryl chloride)
|
10025–87–3
|
|
6
|
Phosphorus trichloride
|
7719–12–2
|
|
7
|
Phosphorus pentachloride (phosphorane, pentachloro)
|
10026–13–8
|
|
8
|
Trimethyl phosphite (phosphorous acid, trimethyl ester)
|
121–45–9
|
|
9
|
Triethyl phosphite (phosphorous acid, triethyl ester)
|
122–52–1
|
|
10
|
Dimethyl phosphite (phosphonic acid, dimethyl ester)
|
868–85–9
|
|
11
|
Diethyl phosphite (phosphonic acid, diethyl ester)
|
762–04–9
|
|
12
|
Sulphur monochloride (sulfur chloride – S2Cl2)
|
10025–67–9
|
|
13
|
Sulphur dichloride (sulfur chloride – SCl2)
|
10545–99–0
|
|
14
|
Thionyl chloride
|
7719–09–7
|
|
15
|
Ethyldiethanolamine
|
139–87–7
|
|
16
|
Methyldiethanolamine
|
105–59–9
|
|
17
|
Triethanolamine
|
102–71–6
|
Schedule
12 Goods the importation of which is
prohibited without permission under regulation 4U
(subregulation 4U (1))
|
Item
|
Description of Goods
|
|
1
|
Glucomannan in tablet form
|
|
2
|
Goods known as ‘Klunk Klip’, ‘Comfix’ and ‘Auto Comfort’
seat belt accessories and similar goods that are designed to induce and
maintain slack in retractor seat belts
|
|
3
|
Goods known as ‘Autotrend Sun Filter’ and similar goods
that do not comply with Australian Design Rule No. 11 for internal sun visors
|
|
4
|
Toys that have been marketed under the following names:
(a) ‘Skateboard Smackup’ or ‘Skateboard Smackups’;
(b) ‘Garbage Pail Kids’;
(c) ‘Krazy Kookie Balls’;
(d) ‘Weird Balls’;
(e) ‘Foul Ball’;
(f) ‘Mad Ball’ or ‘Mad Balls’;
(g) ‘Trash Head Spitballs’;
(h) ‘Gross Out Grunkies’;
(i) ‘Kuddlee Uglee’;
(j) ‘Super Dough Squeezers’;
(k) ‘Rude Ralph’ or ‘Rude Ralph Gang’
|
|
5
|
Chewing tobacco, and snuffs intended for oral use,
imported in an amount weighing more than 1.5 kilograms
|
|
6
|
An underwater breathing apparatus known as ‘Diveman’ or
similar devices consisting of an air pump, powered by the user’s legs, that supplies
air drawn down from the water’s surface to the user in a compressed state
dependent on the user’s effort
|
|
7
|
A device to enable a water
skier to be released quickly in the event of a mishap in the water, and
marketed under the name of ‘QUICKIE Line Release’
|
|
8
|
Gas masks that contain asbestos
|
|
9
|
Candles with wicks that contain greater than 0.06% lead by
weight
|
|
10
|
Candle wicks containing greater than 0.06% lead by weight
|
|
11
|
A jelly confectionery product that:
(a) contains the ingredient ‘konjac’ (also known as
glucomannan, conjac, konnyaku, konjonac, taro powder and yam flour); and
(b) is supplied in a container that has a height or
width of less than or equal to 45mm;
including a product marketed using the expression ‘mini‑cup’.
|